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QUESTION 1
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260
The Admin user is unable to 210-260 enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When an administrator initiates a device wipe command from the ISE, what is the immediate effect?
A. It requests the administrator to choose between erasing all device data or only managed corporate data.
B. It requests the administrator to enter the device PIN or password before proceeding with the operation.
C. It notifies the device user and proceeds with the erase operation.
D. It immediately erases all data on the device.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Security as a Service
D. Compute as a Service
E. Tenancy as a Service
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. 210-260 Which security principle has been violated?
A. confidentiality
B. availability
C. access
D. control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?
A. cross-site scripting attack
B. worm traffic
C. port scanning
D. DDoS attacks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is a benefit of a web application firewall?
A. It blocks known vulnerabilities without patching applications.
B. It simplifies troubleshooting.
C. It accelerates web traffic.
D. It supports all networking protocols.
Correct Answer: A

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Question No : 1
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain ->.
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.

Question No : 2
Refer to exhibit:
200-125
200-125 Which two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Answer: C,F

Explanation:
While transferring data through many different networks, the source and destination IP addresses are not changed. Only the source and destination MAC addresses are changed.
So in this case Host A will use the IP address of Host C and the MAC address of E0 interface to send data. When the router receives this data, it replaces the source MAC address with its own E1 interface’s MAC address and replaces the destination MAC address with Host C’s MAC address before sending to Host C.

Question No : 3
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no 200-125 longer utilize CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).

Question No : 4
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and cannot reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the 200-125 message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

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QUESTION 1
What is the first step in performing a risk assessment?
A. Identifying critical services and network vulnerabilities and determining the potential impact of their compromise or failure.
B. Investigating reports of data theft or security breaches and assigning responsibility.
C. Terminating any employee believed to be responsible for compromising security.
D. Evaluating the effectiveness and appropriateness of the organization’s current risk-management activities.
E. Establishing a security team to perform forensic examinations of previous known attacks.
Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about the MACsec security protocol are true? (choose two.)
A. Stations broadcast an MKA heartbeat that contains the key server priority
B. The SAK is secured by 128 bit AES-GCM by default
C. When switch-to-switch link security is configured in manual mode, the SAP operation mode must be set to GCM
D. MACsec is not supported in MDA mode.
E. MKA heartbeats are sent at a default interval of 3 seconds.
Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which two options are benefits of network summarization? (Choose two.)
A. It can summarize discontiguous IP addresses.
B. It can easily be added to existing networks
C. it can increase the convergence of the network
D. It reduces the number of routes
E. It prevents unnecessary routing updates at the summarization boundary if one of the routes in the summary is unstable.
Answer: DE
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which description of a virtual private cloud is true?
A. An on-demand configurable pool of shared software applications allocated within a public cloud environment, which provides tenant isolation
B. An on-demand configurable pool of shared data resources allocated within a private cloud environment, which provides assigned DMZ zones
C. An on-demand configurable pool of shared networking resources allocated within a private cloud environment, which provides tenant isolation
D. An on-demand configurable pool of shared computing resources allocated within a public cloud environment, which provides tenant isolation
Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about SCEP are true? (Choose two) 400-251 dumps
A. CA servers must support GetCACaps response messages in order to implement extended functionality
B. The GetCRL exchange is signed and encrypted only in the response direction.
C. It is vulnerable to downgrade attacks on its cryptographic capabilities
D. The GetCert exchange is signed and encrypted only in the response direction.
E. The GetCACaps response message supports DES encryption and the SHA-128 hashing algorithm.
Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which effect of the ip nhrp map multicast dynamic command is true?
A. It configures a hub router to automatically add spoke routers to the multicast replication list of the hub
B. It enables a GRE tunnel to operate without the IPsec peer or crypto ACLs.
C. it enables a GRE tunnel to dynamically update the routing tables on the devices at each end of the tunnel
D. It configures a hub router to reflect the routes it learns from a spoke back to other spokes through the same interface
Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which statement about VRF-aware GDOI group members is true?
A. IPsec is used only to secure data traffic.
B. The GM cannot route control traffic through the same VRF as data traffic
C. Multiple VRFs are used to separate control traffic and data traffic
D. Registration traffic and rekey traffic must operate on different VRFs
Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two.)
A. The administrator can configure the allow-default command to force the routing table to use only the default route
B. It is not supported on the Cisco ASA security appliance.
C. The administrator can configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via any command to enable the RPF check to work routing groups.
D. The administrator can use the show cef interface command to determine whether uRPF is enabled
E. In strict mode, only one routing path can be available to reach network devices on a subnet
Answer: DE

QUESTION 9     400-251 dumps
Which three statements about SXP are true? (Choose three )
A. It resides in the control plane, where connections can be initiated from a listener
B. Packets can be tagged with SGTs only with hardware support
C. Each VRF supports only one CTS-SXP connection
D. To enable an access device to use IP device tracking to learn source device IP addresses.
DHCP snooping must be configured.
E. The SGA ZBPF uses the SGT to apply forwarding decisions
F. Separate VRFs require different CTS-SXP peers, but they can use the same source IP addresses.
Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which WEP configuration can be exploited by a weak IV attack?
A. When the static WEP password has been stored without encryption
B. When a per-packet WEP key is in use
C. When a 64-bit key is in use
D. When the static WEP password has been given away
E. When a 40-bit key is in use
F. When the same WEP key is used to create every pack
Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface (CLI),
and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control
command allows you to do this quickly?
A. Ctrl-z
B. Ctrl-c
C. Esc
D. Shift-Page Down
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.
B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of
the data.
C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic types
on the same physical wire?
A. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical
separation of traffic.
B. ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic
type on the same physical wire.
C. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN’s to create logical separation of
traffic.
D. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create logical
separation of traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A. Provides an universal addressing scheme
B. Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C. Provides reliable data transfers.
D. Provides a physical interface to the network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will
you obtain with this mask?
A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts
B. 64 subnets, 4 hostsC. 4 subnets, 62 hosts
D. 64 subnets, 2 hosts
E. 6 subnets, 30 hosts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?
A. Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network.
B. A list of other DHCP clients.
C. IP addresses and their lease times.
D. Server time information
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing
A. Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.
B. Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.
C. Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.
D. Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?
A. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.
B. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services
C. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.
D. The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or
HTML.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?
A. Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known
port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
B. Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and
are assigned by IANA.
C. Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to
1023 and are assigned by IANA.
D. Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and
can have any value.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?
A. IBM.
B. US Military.
C. Alcatel-Lucent.D. NASA.
E. Bell Labs
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?
A. ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa
Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).
B. The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks,
making an international network of networks.
C. ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on
the University of Hawaii campus.
D. ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering a
new protocol called TCP that was capable of:
A. Secure transmission of information.
B. Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.
C. Allowing remote logins.
D. Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which network was created to replace ARPANET?
A. INWG
B. ALOHANET
C. IETF
D. NSFNET
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?
A. The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980’s following the US military’s adoption of
TCP/IP in 1983.
B. The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.
C. The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000
when the world wide web was conceived.
D. Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into
research and education based networks.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 15
Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?
A. IEEE
B. IETF
C. NSFNETD. ITU-T
E. APNIC
Correct Answer: B

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1. Which server houses the database partitions in the AIX BCU V2.1?
A. IBM System p5 570

B. IBM System p5 575

C. IBM System p5 590

D. IBM System p5 595
Answer: B

2. If the ADD DBPARTITIONNUM command is used to add a new database partition to an existing DB2
instance,which statement is correct?
A. All existing databases in the instance are expanded to the new database partition but data cannot be
stored on the newpartition until it has been added to a partition group.

B. Database partition groups within existing databases will automatically include the new database
partition and willredistribute their existing data to the new partition.

C. Any single partition databases within the instance will automatically become multi-partition databases
once the newpartition is added to the instance.

D. A database administrator would need to modify the db2nodes.cfg file to complete the addition of the
new partition tothe instance.
Answer:A

3. A database administrator needs to create a table with key columns C1 (i.e. YearDay), C2, and C3. This
table needs tobe partitioned by column C1 with three months per data partition. Additionally, data needs
to be organized by columns C2 and C3, so that all rows within any three month date range are clustered
together based on 12 months of data. Which CREATE TABLE statement will accomplish this objective?
A. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c2)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c2, c3))

B. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c1)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c2, c3))

C. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c1)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c2))

D. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c1)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c3))
Answer: B

4. Which data organization schemes are supported?
A. PARTITION BY HASH and ORGANIZE BY

B. PARTITION BY RANGE and ORGANIZE BY KEY SEQUENCE

C. PARTITION BY HASH and ORGANIZE BY KEY SEQUENCE

D. PARTITION BY RANGE and ORGANIZE BY
Answer: D
5. When a database administrator chooses the dimensions for an MDC table, which two characteristics
should beconsidered? (Choose two.)
A. the query transaction rate

B. numeric data versus character data

C. extent size

D. the cardinality of the candidate columns

E. prefetch size
Answer: CD

6. A database administrator wants to design a multi-partition database that can take advantage of both
intra-partition parallelism and inter-partition parallelism. Which configuration will allow the use of these
types of parallelism while using the least number of hardware components (servers, processors)?
A. one server having at least two processors

B. two servers having one processor and one logical database partition

C. one server having four processors and two logical database partitions

D. two servers each having four processors and two logical database partitions
Answer: C
7. A database administrator needs to update a table named TRANSACT by removing February 2005 data
and replacing it with February 2007 data. What are the proper steps, in the correct order, required to
accomplish this?
A. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
’02/01/2007′ ENDING ’02/28/2007′ FROM new table 4) SET INTEGRITY FOR transact

B. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
’01/01/2007′ ENDING ’02/28/2007′ FROM new table 4) SET INTEGRITY FOR transact

C. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
’02/01/2007′ ENDING ’02/28/2007′ FROM new table 4) RUNSTATS ON TABLE transact

D. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
’02/01/2007′ ENDING ’02/28/2007′ FROM new table 4) REORG TABLE transact
Answer:A

8. A database administrator would like to examine repartitioning options for a partitioned database named
PRODDB. A workload has been captured on the system (Windows) and is stored in a file named
WORKLOAD.SQL. What is the proper command to run the Design Advisor so that it will evaluate the
information stored in the file and give advice on re-partitioning?

A. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -P

B. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -partitioning

C. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -m P

D. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -m ALL
Answer: C
9. In which two environments would intra-partition parallelism be used? (Choose two.)
A. Single database partition, single processor

B. Single database partition, multiple processors

C. Multiple database partitions, single processor

D. Multiple database partitions, multiple processors

Answer: BD

10. Given a SHEAPTHRES value of 2560, in which two cases will a SHEAPTHRES_SHR value of 1024
be meaningful? (Choose two.)
A. INTRA_PARALLEL NO

B. MAX_CONNECTIONS 2000, MAX_COORDAGENTS 100

C. MAX_AGENTS 100, MAX_CONNECTIONS 2000

D. MAX_CONNECTIONS 500, MAX_COORDAGENTS 1000

E. INTRA_PARALLEL YES
Answer: BE

11. If the sort heap threshold parameter SHEAPTHRES_SHR is set to a value of 0, what will happen?
A. All sorts will be done in a temporary table space.

B. The shared sort memory allocation will be calculated by DB2.

C. No shared memory is allocated for sorting.

D. All sorts will be done in shared memory.
Answer: D

12. A batch application executes a large number of update statements. The service level agreement for
the application states that the application must complete its work as quickly as possible to ensure that
dependent workloads can start ontime. What is one way to help the application complete quickly?
A. Code the application to issue a LOCK TABLE statement.

B. Code the application to issue a LOCK ROW statement.

C. Decrease the number of I/O servers.

D. Increase the locklist parameter.
Answer:A

13. Which procedure will successfully configure the memory areas within a database, including buffer
pools, to use the Self Tuning Memory Manager (STMM)?
A. 1) Set the SELF_TUNING_MEM database configuration parameter to ON.2) Set the relevant
configuration parameters within the database configuration file to AUTOMATIC. 3) Use the ALTER
BUFFERPOOL command to change the size of all buffer pools to AUTOMATIC.

B. 1) Set the SELF_TUNING_MEM database configuration parameter to ON.2) Use the ALTER
BUFFERPOOL command to change the size of all buffer pools to AUTOMATIC.

C. 1) Set the SELF_TUNING_MEM database configuration parameter to ON.
Answer:A

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