300-460 CLDINF: Latest Cisco CCNP Cloud 300-460 Practical Exam questions and Answers

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Latest effective Cisco 300-460 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
An engineer is configuring a vNIC template. Under which circumstance do they want to disable vNIC fabric failover?
A. The Cisco UCS domain is running in Ethernet switch mode.
B. A named VLAN already exists.
C. The VLAN pin group has been created.
D. The statistics threshold policy has already been set.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-
0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_cha pter_010100.html


QUESTION 2
An engineer is creating WWPN pools to use for vHBAs. Which WWPN must the engineer use?
A. 20:00:20:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
B. 20:XX:XX:25:B5:00:00:00
C. 10:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
D. 20:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3-
1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_c hapter22.pdf


QUESTION 3
An FCoE frame has just arrived on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch and must be switched toward a directlyattached
FCoE storage array. Which two actions must be done to the frame to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. The frame is switched out of a physical Fibre Channel interface.
B. The frame is switched out of a physical Ethernet interface.
C. The frame is switched out of a logical Ethernet interface.
D. The frame is switched out of a logical Fibre Channel interface.
E. The frame encapsulates a UDP/IP packet.
F. The frame encapsulates a TCP/IP packet.
Correct Answer: BF


QUESTION 4
An architect must use legacy Cisco NX-OS 7000 and 2000 Series Switches in a data center to implement
VXLAN and VTEP on a VMware ESXi infrastructure. Which solution allows using VXLAN with VTEP without upgrading
legacy routing and switching infrastructure?
A. VMware NSX
B. OpenStack Neutron
C. Cisco ACI
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which option is the best way to provide templates to end users in Cisco UCS Director?
A. Give access to the template.
B. Assign the template to the standard catalog.
C. Assign the template to the advance catalog.
D. Deploy a copied template.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-460 exam question q6A cloud engineer is replicating a FlexPod design. The current design has a Cisco UCS B- Series Chassis with six Cisco
B200 M2 blades that connect to a NetApp FAS800 storage array. VSAN 10 is configured on the Cisco Nexus 5000
Series Switch to handle all storage traffic. VMs on the Cisco B200 M2 blades can read and write to NAS on the NetApp
FAS8000. The engineer wants to connect a second Cisco UCS B-Series Chassis with four Cisco B200 M4 blades to the
NetApp array. The engineer has configured four Fibre Channel uplink ports from the Cisco UCS 6248 UP Fabric
Interconnect to the Cisco Nexus Fibre Channel ports fc1/23 and fc 1/24. However, the Fibre Channel ports on the Cisco
UCS 6248 fail to initialize after the engineer enables the port.
Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. The SFP type is 10 Gigabit Ethernet instead of 4 Gigabit Ethernet.
B. The port negotiation speed is set to 8 Gbps.
C. The switch port mode on the Cisco Fabric Extender Fibre Channel port is set to NP.
D. The Fibre channel port is set to uplink instead of Fibre Channel storage port.
E. The VSAN under port properties is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
An engineer is configuring two new Cisco UCS domains that are connected to the same network and SAN
infrastructure. What must the engineer do to configure MAC pools and WWPN pools?
A. Configure UCS 1 pool addresses and extend the pools to UCS 2.
B. Configure different pool addresses for each Cisco UCS domain.
C. Configure shared pool addresses for each Cisco UCS domain.
D. Configure the same pool addresses for each Cisco UCS domain.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
An administrator is troubleshooting a virtual switch that does not show up when it is added to the host using the port-
profile management snap-in. Which action is the next step?
A. Enable SR-IOV for the virtual switch inside Hyper-V
B. Add drivers for the virtual switch
C. Reboot the server
D. Enable VMbus for the parent partition and the virtual machine
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/hyperv/gui/config_ guide/2-1/b_GUI
_Hyper-V_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_Hyper-
V_VMFEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_0101.html#task_FD3156BC3C7F48FBB F728E8A824E81CA


QUESTION 9
Which four fields are needed when creating a WWPN pool in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose four)
A. the first and last WWPN address in the block
B. the number of WWPN addresses in the block
C. a unique name for the initiator
D. the first WWPN address in the block
E. the WWN for the initiator
F. a unique name for the pool
G. the last WWPN address in the block
H. a description for the pool
Correct Answer: ABFH
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-
2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_cha
pter_011001.html#task_8717496137259896828


QUESTION 10
Which option lists the default methods that are needed to access a Cisco UCS C-Series via its Lights-Out
Management? (Choose two.)
A. HTTPS
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 11
Which two pieces of information are needed when adding an NFS mount point in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of the NFS server where you plan to store the OS images for Bare Metal Agent to use
B. the locate and organization where the NFS server is located
C. the IP address of the IP share storage system
D. the location of the NFS server where the OS images are stored
E. the IP address of the main UCS server
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/bma- install-
config/52/b_ucsd_bma_install_config_guide_5_2/b_ucsd_bma_install_config_guide_5_2_chapter_
0110.html#task_FB4A6403CF4F4650B31A8C2C6FF4E69F


QUESTION 12
A Cisco UCS blade has just failed. To ensure that the replacement blade can reach Fibre Channel storage, which action
must the server administrator take?
A. Zone the SAN fabric for the new WWPNs.
B. Reconfigure LUN masking on the storage array.
C. Insert the blade into the same chassis and slot.
D. Create a new zoning policy within Cisco UCS Manager.
E. Move the old service profile onto the new hardware.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
A network engineer is optimizing spanning tree in the data center. Which feature must the engineer implement on a
physical switch port that is connected to a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch virtual switch?
A. BPDU guard
B. PortFast trunk
C. port security
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
Two companies want to integrate their storage infrastructure. Both companies use a single Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer
Director, but they use Fibre Channel storage arrays from different vendors. Physical connectivity between the two Cisco
MDS 9513s is already in place. No common VSAN IDs exist between the two companies. Which option is most likely to
achieve the goal?
A. Configure NPV.
B. Configure static FCIDs.
C. Change the storage arrays to the same vendor.
D. Enable FC-NAT.
E. Configure IVR.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is trying to mapping policies. Where can this task be accomplished?
A. Virtual > Physical Infrastructure Policies
B. Virtual > Virtual/Hypervisor Policies
C. Policies > Physical Infrastructure Policies
D. Policies > Virtual/Hypervisor Policies
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs- director/vsphere-mgmt-
guide/50/b_UCS_Director_VMware_vSphere_Management_Guide_50/b_UCS_Director_VMware_
vSphere_Management_Guide_50_chapter_0100.html#topic_736267F57B684D349EBA0C F77B2E17C6


QUESTION 16
Which three statements about context workflow mapping in Cisco UCS Director are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can execute a workflow that contains a set of tasks from within a context of a component.
B. Workflows cannot be mapped in the form of an action, nor can they be executed in the context of a component.
C. You have to browse for a required workflow in the workflow list to execute it
D. Context workflow mapping consists of two stages: Stage 1 ?Create a context mapper task and add it to the workflow
that must be mapped as an action Stage 2 ?Add the workflow to the content mapper list by giving in an action label
E. Context workflow mapping consists of two stages: Stage 1 ?Create the workflow to the content mapper list by giving
in an action label Stage 2 ?Add a context mapper task to the workflow that must be mapped as an action
F. You can map a workflow in the form of an action and execute it in the context of the component
G. Workflows cannot be executed at the component level
Correct Answer: ADF
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs- director/orchestration-
guide/50/b_UCS_Director_Orchestration_Guide_5_0/b_UCS_Director_Orchestration_Guide_5_0_
chapter_0101.html#concept_3BA2EDADF4724218802E5CE3184B27A0


QUESTION 17
Cisco USB Director provides many tools to help diagnose and resolve common problems. Which option
describes the purpose of the system information tool?
A. to view basic and advanced system information, including the license status, database tables version, recourse
usage, logs, and debugging processes for troubleshooting
B. to view product support information
C. to execute JavaScript functions and to define variables and functions, when using cloupia scripts
D. to troubleshoot problems related to various administrative tasks such as connectivity, configuration, and status
Correct Answer: A
Reference: Basic system information includes the version, uptimes, service status, system license status, usage,
compute accounts status, compute server status, storage account status, system catalogs, network device status, and
cloud status.
The advanced system information includes basic system information, and database tables summary, product
configuration, top process information, and information on processors, memory, disks, log files, network, and login. You
can also view the system task status, cloud inventory, and monitoring status.


QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-460 exam question q18Cisco UCS Fabric interconnect A and B have identical uplink configurations. Which option describes the problem of
Fabric interconnect A?
A. Ethernet0/11 on Fabric interconnect A is down.
B. The IOM on Fabric interconnect A was rebooted.
C. FC2/1 on Fabric interconnect A is unplugged or has been replaced with a GLC-T.
D. Fabric interconnect A is powered off.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 19
A cloud engineer is implementing a new cloud infrastructure with the following equipment: One Cisco UCS 5108 AC2 B-
Series Chassis Two Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches Two Cisco UCS 6248 Fabric Interconnects One Cisco UCS
2208XP Fabric Extender Eight Cisco B200 M4 half-width blades Which option describes the most likely problem with
this deployment?
A. The half-width blades are not compatible with the chassis.
B. One additional fabric interconnect is needed, because the chassis can handle only six half-width blades.
C. Two additional fabric interconnects are needed to handle all four blade servers.
D. An additional fabric extender is needed.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
Which option describes the purpose of system VLANs as used in a Cisco Nexus 1000V Switches?
A. is the equivalent of 802.1q tagging in the Cisco Nexus 1000V
B. enables interface connectivity before an interface is programmed via the control plane
C. allows the VSM to send opaque data to all hosts under management
D. supplements pVLAN functionality in a virtualized environment
Correct Answer: C

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Latest effective Cisco 300-550 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-550 exam question q1To make this code work properly, which tine of code should you insert at the blank line?
A. r = requests.get(url, headers=header, verify-False)
B. r = requesis.post(url, data:payload, headers:header, verify:False)
C. r = requests.post(url, data=payload, headers=header, verify=False)
D. r = requests(method=\\’POST\\’, url, data=payload, headers=header. verify=False)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Visore uses which protocol to retrieve information from the Cisco ARIC?
A. REST API
B. OpFlex
C. gRPC
D. Visore API
E. MongoDB
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which two network configuration protocols use XML as a data representation format? (Choose two.)
A. NETCONF
B. CORBA
C. TOSGA
D. SNMP
E. RESTCONF
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 4
Which authentication method can be used to access the ACIAPIC controller?
A. REST API using HTTP and header-based authentication
B. REST API using HTTPS and JSON-formatted username/password payload
C. SOAP API using header-based authentication
D. SOAP API using SSL and header-based authentication
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which two statements about IOS XE on a Cisco CSR1000v Router programmatic interface are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports I2RS.
B. It supports open YANG data models.
C. It supports BGP-LS/PCEP as a southbound interface-
D. It supports RESTCONF.
E. It supports OpFlex.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 6
Which statement about an agentless configuration management system is true?
A. It requires managed hosts to have an interpreter for a high-level language such as Python or Ruby.
B. It uses existing protocols to interface with the managed host.
C. It uses compiled languages as the basis of the domain-specific language to interface with managed hosts.
D. It requires managed hosts to connect to a centralized host to receive updated configurations.
E. It requires a software package to be installed on the managed host.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Management protocols like NETCONF access network elements on well-known ports. Which design practice hardens a
network device implementation?
A. Specify the source interface for SSH.
B. Limit access to port 830, well-known clients, and SSH VTY.
C. Enable CoPP.
D. Configure ip http secure-server.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Where is the node-ui.log stored on the Cisco APIC-EM appliance?
A. in the /var/Iog/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the container that is running the node-ui instance
B. in the Cassandra database instance that is running within the container that is running the node-ui instance
C. in the /opt/CSCOapicem/logs/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
D. in the /var/log/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
E. in the Cisco APIC-EM Cassandra database instance
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
You are developing a YANG data model to represent the functionality of a new network application. Which two YANG
statements do you use la organize the model into a hierarchy? (Choose two.)
A. module
B. grouping
C. submodule
D. augment
E. container
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 10
Which tool streamlines the development of network applications?
A. Java Runtime Engine
B. software development kit
C. command-line interface
D. General Public License
E. package management system
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Cisco APIC-EM is used to add a network-wide marking policy for Cisco Spark users who are connected to a Cisco
Catalyst 6500 device. After this change, wireless users complain about a delay in other applications. What is a possible
reason this delay?
A. The DSCP-to-CoS mappings were configured incorrectly.
B. The policy was also deployed to the WLAN controller and overrode the policies of other applications.
C. You cannot automate policy for more than one real-time application at a time.
D. Policy automation cannot be deployed for wireless and wired elements at the same time.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Which two data representation formats are used in RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HTML
B. YAML
C. XML
D. GML
E. ASN.1
F. JSON
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 13
Which command tests a REST API?
A. nc
B. tcpdump
C. curl
D. telnet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 14
Which network configuration protocol uses JSON as a data representation format?
A. NETCONE
B. SOAP
C. RESTCONF
D. HTML
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
What is the best way to specify the location of Python within a script?
A. #!/usr/bin/env bash
B. #!/usr/bin/env python
C. #!/usr/loca l/bin/python
D. #!/usr/bin/python
E. #!/scriptname
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
Which two protocols are examples of southbound APIs? (Choose two.)
A. VXLAN-GPE
B. LLDP
C. NETCONF
D. IPFIX
E. SYSLOG
F. OpFlex
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-550 exam question q17Based on the YANG data model snippet, which RESTCONF URI should you use to retrieve data from the interfaces
container?
A. /restconf/data/my-interfaces:interfaces
B. /restconf/data/my-interfaces:container:interfaces
C. /restconf/operations/my-interfaces:interfaces
D. /restconf/data/com.my-interfaces:interfaces
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
How are authentication credentials sent in a Cisco APIC REST API authorization request?
A. by using OAuth
B. in a token in the header
C. by using Basic Auth
D. in JSON in the payload
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/
api/rest/b_APIC_RESTful_API_User_Guide/b_IFC_RESTful_API_User_Guide_chapter_ 0100.html


QUESTION 19
Which two statements about OpenFlow are true? (Choose two.)
A. The OpenFlow flow table contains header fields, counters, and actions.
B. OpenFlow automatically determines network forwarding rules.
C. OpenFlow interfaces with the management plane.
D. OpenFlow is a southbound protocol.
E. OpenFlow is an agentless technology, like Ansible.
F. OpenFlow is a northbound protocol.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 20
Which feature enables service function chaining to steer traffic to virtual network functions?
A. GRE
B. VXLAN
C. EH
D. NSH
E. REST
Correct Answer: D

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July 2018 New Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 dumps
A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
The simple syntax of static route:
ip route destination-network-address subnet-mask {next-hop-IP-address | exit-interface} + destination-network-address: destination network address of the remote network + subnet mask: subnet mask of the destination network + next-hopIP-address: the IP address of the receiving interface on the next-hop router + exit-interface: the local interface of this router where the packets will go out In the statement “ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0:
+ 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0: the destination network
+fa0/0: the exit-interface

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol which provides a secure remote access connection to network devices. Communication between the client and server is encrypted in both SSH version 1 and SSH version 2. If you want to prevent non-SSH connections, add the “transport input ssh” command under the lines to limit the router to SSH connections only. 200-125 dumps
Straight (non-SSH) Telnets are refused.

QUESTION 3
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
A. one physical interface for each subinterface
B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C. a management domain for each subinterface
D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E. one subinterface per VLAN
F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation:
This scenario is commonly called a router on a stick.

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
What can be determined about the router from the console output?
A. No configuration file was found in NVRAM.
B. No configuration file was found in flash.
C. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
D. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
When no startup configuration file is found in NVRAM, the System Configuration Dialog will appear to ask if we want to enter the initial configuration dialog or not.

QUESTION 5
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
Neighbor discovery is the first step in getting a link state environment up and running. In keeping with the friendly neighbor terminology, a Hello protocol is used for this step. The protocol will define a Hello packet format and a procedure for exchanging the packets and processing the information the packets contain.
After the adjacencies are established, the routers may begin sending out LSAs. As the term flooding implies, the advertisements are sent to every neighbor. In turn, each received LSA is copied and forwarded to every neighbor except the one that sent the LSA.

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3 MB
B. 4 MB
C. 5 MB
D. 7 MB
E. 8 MB
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
In this example, there are a total of 8 MB, but 3.8 are being used already, so another file as large as 4MB can be loaded in addition to the original file.

QUESTION 7
Which command displays CPU utilization?
A. show protocols
B. show process
C. show system
D. show version
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The “show process” (in fact, the full command is “show processes”) command gives us lots of information about each process but in fact it is not easy to read. Below shows the output of this command (some next pages are omitted).
200-125 dumps
A more friendly way to check the CPU utilization is the command “show processes cpu history”, in which the total CPU usage on the router over a period of time: one minute, one hour, and 72 hours are clearly shown:
200-125 dumps
+ The Y-axis of the graph is the CPU utilization.
+ The X-axis of the graph is the increment within the period displayed in the graph. For example, from the last graph (last 72 hours) we learn that the highest CPU utilization within 72 hours is 37% about six hours ago.

QUESTION 8
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of popular routing protocols are listed below:
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway.
What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Since all the same router (C-router) is the default gateway for all three VLANs, all traffic destined to a different VLA will be sent to the C-router. The C-router will have knowledge of all three networks since they will appear as directly connected in the routing table. Since the C-router already knows how to get to all three networks, no routing protocols need to be configured.

QUESTION 10
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
Both the “ip default-network” and “ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 (next hop)” commands can be used to set the default gateway in a Cisco router.

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
r120#show ip ospf data
OSPF Router with ID (10.0.0.120) (Process ID 1)
Next, who are the other routers in our area?
Router Link States (Area 1)
Link IDADV RouterAgeSeq#ChecksumLink count
10.0.0.11110.0.0.1116000x8000023A 0x0092B31
10.0.0.11210.0.0.11212460×80000234 0x009CAC1
10.0.0.11310.0.0.1131480x8000022C0x0043993
10.0.0.12010.0.0.1201520x800002400x0046CB1
We can see OSPF Router ID will be used as source of Type 1 LSA. Also the router will chose the highest loopback interface as its OSPF router ID (if available).

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the
Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
We use default routing to send packets with a remote destination network not in the routing table to the next-hop router. You should generally only use default routing on stub networks–those with only one exit path out of the network.
According to exhibit, all traffic towards Internet that originates from workstations should forward to Router R1.
Syntax for default route is:
ip route <Remote_Network> <Netmask> <Next_Hop_Address>.

QUESTION 13
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The “show version” command can be used to show the last method to powercycle (reset) a router.
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 14
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
A. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to speed up convergence
D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
E. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
F. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:
OSPF implements a two-tier hierarchical routing model that uses a core or backbone tier known as area zero (0). Attached to that backbone via area border routers (ABRs) are a number of secondary tier areas. The hierarchical approach is used to achieve the following:
Rapid convergence because of link and/or switch failures ?
Deterministic traffic recovery
?
Scalable and manageable routing hierarchy, reduced routing overhead.

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Notice the line, which says “Interface VLAN1, changed state to administratively down”. This shows that VLAN1 is shut down. Hence remote management of this switch is not possible unless VLAN1 is brought back up. Since VLAN1 is the only interface shown in the output, you have to assume that no other VLAN interface has been configured with an IP Address.

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High Quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q11-Q40)

QUESTION 11
An administrator issues the show ip interface s0/0 command and the output displays that interface Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up What does “line protocol is up” specifically indicate about the interface?
A. The cable is attached properly.
B. CDP has discovered the connected device.
C. Keepalives are being received on the interface.
D. A carrier detect signal has been received from the connected device.
E. IP is correctly configured on the interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which command is used to build DHCP pool?
A. ipdhcp conflict
B. ipdhcp-server pool DHCP
C. ipdhcp pool DHCP
D. ipdhcp-client pool DHCP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network technician is unable to ping from R1 to R2. What will help correct the problem?
A. Ensure that the serial cable is correctly plugged in to the interfaces.
B. Apply the clock rate 56000 configuration command to the serial0/1 interface of R1.
C. Configure the serial0/1 interfaces on R1 and R2 with the no shutdown command.
D. Change the address of the serial0/1 interface of R1 to 192.1.1.4.
E. Change the subnet masks of both interfaces to 255.255.255.240.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
A. traceroute
B. telnet
C. ping
D. ping ipv6
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which port-security feature allows a switch to learn MAC addresses dynamically and add them to the running configuration?
A. security violation restrict mode
B. switch port protection
C. sticky learning
D. security violation protect mode
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You can configure an interface to convert the dynamic MAC addresses tosticky secure MAC addresses and to add them to the running configuration by enabling sticky learning. To enable sticky learning, enter the switchport port-security macaddress sticky interface configuration command. When you enter this command, the interface converts all the dynamic secure MAC addresses, including those that were dynamically learned before sticky learning was enabled, to sticky secure MAC addresses.

QUESTION 16
Which transport layer protocol is best suited for the transport of VoIP data?
A. RIP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. OSPF
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
CORRECT TEXT
How do you bypass password on cisco device? 100-105 dumps
A. Change the configuration register to 0x2142. With this setting when that router reboots, it bypasses the startup-config and no password is required.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What value should be displayed in Box 1 of the ipconfig output of host A?
A. 172.18.14.5
B. 172.18.14.6
C. 192.168.1.10
D. 192.168.1.11
E. 192.168.1.250
F. 192.168.1.254
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 19
In which two ways does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
B. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
C. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
D. TCP provides synchronized communication.
E. TCP provides best effort delivery.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
TCP uses a sequence number to identify each byte of data. The sequence number identifies the order of the bytes sent from each computer so that the data can be reconstructed in order, regardless of any fragmentation, disordering, or packet loss that may occur during.

QUESTION 20
What is true about ipv6 unique local addresses:
A. Global id
B. Public routable
C. Summarization
D. Unique prefix
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Scenario:
You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing network issues. Troubleshoot the network issues. Router R1 connects the main office to the internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
NAT is enabled on router R1.
The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2.
R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1.
You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured
C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?
A. IEEE 802 1X
B. HSRP
C. port channel
D. router on a stick
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which feature automatically disables Cisco Express Forwarding when it is enabled?
A. multicast
B. IP redirects
C. RIB
D. ACL logging
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
If you enable CiscoExpress Forwarding and then create an access list that uses the logkeyword, the packets that match the access list are not Cisco Express Forwarding switched. They are process switched. Logging disables Cisco Express Forwarding.

QUESTION 24
When troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode, which error condition can be immediately ruled out?
A. giants
B. no buffers
C. collisions
D. ignored
E. dribble condition
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?
A. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
E. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
F. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Scenario:
You work for a company that provides managed network services, and of your real estate clients running a small office is experiencing network issues, Troubleshoot the network issues. 100-105 dumps
Router R1 connects the main office to internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers NAT is enabled on Router R1.
The routing protocol that is enable between routers R1, R2, and R3 is RIPv2.
R1 sends default route into RIPv2 for internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1.
Server1 and Server2 are placed in VLAN 100 and 200 respectively, and dare still running router on stick configuration with router R2.
You have console access on R1, R2, R3, and L2SW1 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
What is the correct statement below after examining the R1 routing table?
A. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses static route instead RIPv2 Because the static route AD that is configured is less than the AD of RIPv2
B. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead static route Because the static route AD that is configured is higher than the AD of RIPv2
C. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses static route instead RIPv2 But the traffic is forwarded to the ISP instead of the internal network.
D. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead static route Because the static route AD that is configured is 255
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Configuration are below for the answer.
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 27
What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network address is being used?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 14
E. 16
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock source?
A. ntp peer
B. ntp broadcast
C. ntp master
D. ntp server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
When you use the ping command to send ICMP messages across a network, what’s the most common request/reply pair you’ll see? (Select one answer choice)
A. Echo request and Echo reply
B. ICMP hold and ICMP send
C. ICMP request and ICMP reply
D. Echo off and Echo on
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
What happens when the cable is too long?
A. Baby Giant
B. Late collision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
The internetwork shown in the diagram is experiencing network connectivity problems.
100-105 dumps
What is the cause of the problem?
A. The cabling connecting host A to Switch3 is too long.
B. The address of host B is a broadcast address.
C. The IP address of interface Fa0/0 of Router1 is not a usable address.
D. The cable connecting Switch2 and Switch3 should be a crossover.
E. The IP address of Server 1 is in the wrong subnet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
If NVRAM lacks boot system commands, where does the router look for the Cisco IOS by default?
A. ROM
B. RAM
C. Flash
D. bootstrap
E. startup-config
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrative distance?
A. IBGP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. EIGRP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Default Distance Value TableThis table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
IGRP
OSPF
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP
Unknown*

QUESTION 36
Which information is used to install the best route to a destination in IP routing table?
A. the tunnel ID
B. the prefix length
C. the interface number
D. the autonomous system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
All devices attached to the network are shown. Which number of collision domains are present in this network?
A. 9
B. 3
C. 6
D. 2
E. 15
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
Both switch and router separate collision domains. In other words, each port of the switch and router creates one collision domain so we have 15 collision domains in this topology. 100-105 dumps

QUESTION 38
What is the requirement of configuring 6to4 tunnelling on two routers?
A. Both ipv6 and ipv4 must be configured
B. Only IPv6
C. Only IPv4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1001
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.
Note:
+ VLAN 0 and 4095 are reserved for system use only. You cannot see or use these VLANs.
+ VLAN 1 and VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs. Default VLANs are created automatically and cannot be configured or deleted by users.
+ VLAN 2 to 1001 are normal VLANs. You can create, use and delete them.
+ VLAN 1002 to 1005 are normal VLANs too but Cisco reserved for FDDI an Token Ring.

QUESTION 40
Which subnet address is for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A. 172.19.20.20
B. 172.19.20.0
C. 172.19.20.32
D. 172.19.20.15
E. 172.19.20.16
Correct Answer: E

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New Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)

QUESTION 11
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic? 300-135 dumps
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? (choose two)
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.
300-135 dumps
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the networkaddressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. Ipv4 OSPF Routing
D. Ipv4 EIGRP Routing.
E. Ipv4 Route Redistribution.
F. Ipv6 RIP Routing
G. Ipv6 OSPF Routing
H. Ipv4 and Ipv6 Interoperability
I. Ipv4 layer 3 security.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. 300-135 dumps After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 25
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks? (choose two)
A. Firefighting
B. Interrupt-driven
C. Policy-based
D. Structured
E. Foundational
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced
overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with
logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? 300-135 dumps (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 30
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

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200-105 dumps

The Best Cisco ICND2 200-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (11-30)

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
Convergence Cisco enhanced the original 802.1D specification with features such as Uplink Fast.

QUESTION 12
What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)
A. Disable Inverse ARP.
B. Create a full-mesh topology.
C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.
D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.
E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation/Reference:
IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing.

QUESTION 13
200-105 dumps
200-105 dumps
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the.

QUESTION 14
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation/Reference:
The areas can be any number from 0 to 4.2 billion and 1 to 65,535 for the Process ID. The process ID is the ID of the OSPF process to which the interface belongs. The process ID is local to the rout.

QUESTION 15
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? 200-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Correct Answer: BG

Explanation/Reference:
When reading (or being lectured about) all the glorious details of dynamic routing protocols, it\’s hard not to come away with the impression that dynamic routing is always better than static routing.

QUESTION 16
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation/Reference:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -andgt; A and E are correct.
The command andquot;show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about V.

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes a.

QUESTION 19
What are three benefits of GLBP? 200-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.
Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation/Reference:
Load Sharing You can configure GLBP in such a way that traffic from LAN clients can be shared by multiple routers.

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation/Reference:
The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing. Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don\’t need to specify which t.

QUESTION 21
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat

QUESTION 22
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF do

QUESTION 23
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
Introduction to EIGRP Reference:
Feasible Successors
A destination entry is moved from the topo

QUESTION 24
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Anoth

QUESTION 25
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
To assign a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) to a specified Frame Relay subinterface on t

QUESTION 26
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
Frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link 200-105 dumps

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Router edge-1 is unable to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency with router ISP-1. Which two configuration changes can you make on edge-1 to allow the two routers to establish adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. Set the subnet mask on edge-1 to 255 255.255.252.
B. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1514.
C. Set the OSPF cost on edge-1 to 1522.
D. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1500.
E. Configure the ip ospf mtu-ignore command on the edge-1 Gi0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A situation can occur where the interface MTU is at a high value, for example 9000, while the real value of the size of packets that can be forwarded over this interface is 1500.

QUESTION 28
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will include in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. However, OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routi

QUESTION 29
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
What Is Administrative Distance?
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to s

QUESTION 30
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? 200-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts totransparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
Correct Answer: CF

Explanation/Reference:
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
VTP Modes Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode. In any given V

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause? 300-115 dumps
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to? 300-115 dumps
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.
A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface Description
D. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. 300-115 dumps
What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions.
What is the most likely cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Exam Code: 300-075
Total Questions: 383 Q&As
300-075 dump
QUESTION 1
If delegated credentials checking has been enabled and remote workers can register to the VCS Expressway, which statement is true?
A. H.323 message credential checks are delegated.
B. SIP registration proxy mode is set to On in the VCS Expressway.
C. A secure neighbor zone has been configured between the VCS Expressway and the VCS Control.
D. SIP registration proxy mode is set to Off in the VCS Expressway.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where do you configure the default bit rate for audio and video devices?
A. Enterprise Parameters
B. Region under Region Information
C. Cisco CallManager service under Service Parameter Configuration
D. Enterprise Phone Configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the host portion format in Cisco Unified Communications Manager URI dialing is false?
A. The host portion cannot start or end with a hyphen.
B. The host portion is not case sensitive.
C. The host portion accepts characters a-z, A-Z, 0-9, hyphens, and periods.
D. The host portion can have two periods in a row.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which statement about setting up FindMe in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server is true? 300-075 dump
A. Users are allowed to delete or change the address of their principal devices.
B. Endpoints should register with an alias that is the same as an existing FindMe ID.
C. If VCS is using Cisco TMS provisioning, users manage their FindMe accounts via VCS.
D. A VCS cluster name must be configured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An engineer is performing an international multisite deployment and wants to create an effective backup method to access TEHO destinations in case the call limit triggers. Which technology provides this ability?
A. AAR
B. CFUR
C. LRG
D. SRST
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which functionality does ILS use to link all hub clusters in an ILS network?
A. Fullmesh
B. Automesh
C. ILS updates
D. multicast
Correct Answer: B
300-075 dump
QUESTION 7
Which option indicates the best QoS parameters for interactive video?
A. 0% Max Loss, 100 ms One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning
B. 1% Max Loss, 160 ms One-way Latency, 60 ms Jitter, 10% Overprovisioning
C. 1% Max Loss, 150 ms One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning
D. 5% Max Loss, 5 s One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is working on a Cisco VCS Control routing configuration and wants users to be able to dial ccnpcollab and have calls routed to ccnpcollab@cisco.com. Which option achieves this aim?
A. search rules
B. transforms
C. access rules
D. call policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A presales engineer is working on a quote for a major customer and must evaluate how many Cisco VCS Expressway traversal call licenses for which to plan. Calls to and from which three routes must the engineer include in the tally? (Choose three.)
A. gateway
B. Cisco 9971 Endpoint
C. border controllers
D. gatekeeper
E. SIP trunk
F. VCS
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 10
You have deployed a Cisco 2821 ISR to perform as an SRST voice gateway at a remote site. During a network failure between the remote site and the central office, some of the phones located at the remote site are unable to make phone calls. Which two options are potential causes of the problem? 300-075 dump (Choose two.)
A. The site has exceeded the number of SRST endpoints supported by the voice gateway.
B. The ccm-manager fallback command is configured incorrectly on the voice gateway.
C. Phones at the remote site are assigned to the incorrect device pool.
D. The ccm-manager fallback-mgcp command is configured incorrectly on the voice gateway.
E. The site has exceeded the number of simultaneous calls allowed in SRST mode.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which two options are functionalities of subzones in a Cisco VCS deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Resolve names outside of the direct control of the Cisco VCS that exist on the public Internet.
B. Connect to another Cisco VCS on the same side of the firewall to extend dialing capabilities.
C. Traverse a firewall from a protected network to a public or DMZ network.
D. Apply registration, authentication, and media encryption policies.
E. Manage bandwidth to restrict standard definition endpoints from using more than 2 Mb of bandwidth.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list
Correct Answer: AC

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Exam Code: 200-355
Total Questions: 421 Q&As
200-355 dumps
QUESTION 1
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which architecture is used to divide the roles between the access point and the WLC when deploying a centralized wireless solution?
A. Split MAC
B. CAPWAP
C. LWAPP
D. Local MAC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
During the deployment of a wireless network for data and location services, 200-355 dumps an engineer is to fine-tune the location services. What is this type of survey called?
A. passive fingerprinting
B. passive calibrating
C. active fingerprinting
D. active calibrating
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three items do you need to establish a wireless connection to an enterprise wireless network? (Choose three.)
A. SSID name
B. RF channel
C. RF signal
D. 802.1X/EAP credentials
E. pre-shared key
F. web page
G. WPA/WPA2 settings
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
200-355
Refer to the exhibit. The wireless engineer has deployed the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller. The controller is responding on the service port; however, it will not respond on the management interface.
Which configuration revision will fix the management interface?
A. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10.
B. On the WLC management interface, disable LAG on the management network.
C. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10.
D. On the WLC management interface, change the VLAN ID to 20.
E. On the switch interface, configure no spanning-tree portfast trunk.
F. On WLC Controller > General, disable LAG and reboot.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core Cisco AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Which two Cisco WLC management-access methods are available as the default setting? (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
A customer is reviewing Cisco Prime Infrastructure to identify malicious rogue access points that are operating within the customer environment. 200-355 dumps Which dashboard in Cisco Prime Infrastructure displays this information by default?
A. Context Aware
B. CleanAir
C. Security
D. General
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A customer has ordered a Cisco 5760 Wireless Controller. What speed and quantity of ports are needed for full-speed operation?
A. 6 x 1 Gb
B. 6 x 10 Gb
C. 2 x 10 Gb
D. 2 x 1 Gb
E. 8 x 1 Gb
F. 8 x 10 Gb
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When an AP, in its default configuration mode, connects to a Cisco WLC, which methods are available forremote management access to an AP?
A. SSL and SSH are available only after configuration by a Cisco WLC version 7.0.
B. SSH only
C. HTTPS, and SSH
D. SSH and Telnet
E. SSH and Telnet are available only after configuration by a Cisco WLC version 7.0.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
Correct Answer: BE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. core
B. aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. 200-105 dumps The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center?
A. It supports NIC teaming.
B. It removes STP dependency.
C. It increases scalability.
D. It improves convergence time.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an Internet connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol between the two locations?
A. GRE over IPsec
B. IPsec
C. GRE
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the sameremote network. 200-105 dumps If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: A, D

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QUESTION 1
A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP characteristic does this scenario describe?
A. latency
B. starvation
C. connectionless communication
D. nonsequencing unordered packets
E. jitter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, 300-101 pdf OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?
A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B’s routing table. 300-101 dumps After debugging IPv6 packets, the message “not a router” is found in the output. Why is the routing information not being learned by Router B?
A. OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
B. The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C. An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is connected to Router A.
D. IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.
Correct Answer: D
300-101 dumps
QUESTION 5
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?
A. Disable CDP on the interface.
B. Execute the vpdn enable command.
C. Execute the no switchport command.
D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What is the default OSPF hello interval on a Frame Relay point-to-point network?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A router with an interface that is configured with ipv6 address autoconfig also has a link-local address assigned. Which message is required to obtain a global unicast address when a router is present?
A. DHCPv6 request
B. router-advertisement
C. neighbor-solicitation
D. redirect
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Under which condition does UDP dominance occur? 300-101 dumps
A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C. when WRED is enabled
D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?
A. Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.
B. Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C. Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D. All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command? 300-101 pdf
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which protocol uses dynamic address mapping to request the next-hop protocol address for a specific connection?
A. Frame Relay inverse ARP
B. static DLCI mapping
C. Frame Relay broadcast queue
D. dynamic DLCI mapping
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even if no interesting traffic exists. 300-101 dumps Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?
A. TCP Adjust
B. Dialer Persistent
C. PPPoE Groups
D. half-bridging
E. Peer Neighbor Route
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, 100-105 dumps what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 5
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6? 100-105 dumps
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Correct Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 7
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? 100-105 pdf (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.)
A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.
B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface.
C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.
D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.
E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD

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【latest Cisco 100% pass 】2017 Best 300-135 Dumps Exam Study Guide And Youtube, Lead4pass Latest Cisco 300-135 Dumps PDF Training Materials

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QUESTION 1
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question. 300-135 pdf
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems. 300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
You have received notification from network monitoring system that link between R1 and R5 is down and you noticed that the active router for HSRP group 1 has not failed over to the standby router for group 1. You are required to troubleshoot and identify the issue. 300-135 pdf
A. There is an HSRP group track command misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP group priority misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
D. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
E. This is not an HSRP issue; this is routing issue.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 300-135 dumps
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 5
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 pdf
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two ) 300-135 dumps
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

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【latest Cisco 100% pass 】The Best 200-155 Dumps Practice Materials And Youtube Free Demo, Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers

Updated Cisco 200-155 exam questions and 200-155 dumps pdf training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 exam training material in PDF format, http://www.lead4pass.com/200-155.html Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 dumps is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers.

QUESTION 1
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion
B. To authorize user network access
C. To report and alert link up / down instances
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 3
Select and Place:
200-155
Select and Place:
200-155
Correct Answer:
200-155
QUESTION 4       200-155
Which statement describes an EIGRP feasible successor route?
A. A primary route, added to the routing table
B. A backup route, added to the routing table
C. A primary route, added to the topology table
D. A backup route, added to the topology table
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SLIP
D. LCP
E. DLCI
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10             200-155
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

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【latest Cisco 100% pass 】Lead4pass Latest Cisco 210-250 Dumps Questions And Answers, The Best 210-250 Dumps Exam Practice Materials And Youtube

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Question No : 1
A technician is tasked with performing a room readiness assessment in preparation for an immersive video endpoint. What are three Cisco best practices regarding lighting recommendations for the room? (Choose three.)
A. The bulb temperature should be between 4000 and 4100K.
B. Key lighting should be between 200 and 400 Lux with the endpoint powered on.
C. Shoulder lighting should not exceed two times the facial lighting values with the endpoint off.
D. Use direct lighting fixtures.
E. Within the camera field of view, the lighting for all parts of the room should not fluctuate more than 100 Lux.
F. Avoid using dimming light control systems.
Answer: A,C,E

Question No : 2
Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.)
A. auto-attendant
B. ClearPath
C. Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers
D. Cascading
E. Active presence for all devices
F. Support for Conductor
G. Native scheduling capabilities
Answer: B,D,E,F

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-250
Which configuration item shown in the exhibit should be used to assign the internal and external video communication server address for this group of users?  210-250
A. User Settings > Video Address pattern
B. Administrative Tools > User Settings
C. Configuration Template > Edit Template
D. User Import > Configuration
Answer: C

Question No : 4
A network engineer wants to automate the monitoring of Cisco TelePresence TX systems.
Which step should the engineer take first?
A. Configure Cisco TMS on the codec.
B. Configure Medianet on the codec.
C. Configure NTP on the codec.
D. Configure Multiway on the codec.
E. Configure SNMP on the codec.
Answer: E

Question No : 5
Which three features does Cisco VCS provide? (Choose three.)
A. native Cisco SCCP telephony integration
B. SIP-H.323 interworking functionality
C. native scheduling
D. SIP trunk integration with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. third-party standards-based H.323 and SIP device registration
F. reverse proxy functionality
Answer: B,D,E

Question No : 6
A Unified Communications engineer wants to configure a Cisco TelePresence SX endpoint using static IP addressing to use a different TFTP server. Which path will allow the engineer to complete this configuration?
A. Network Services > Network 1 > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
B. Network > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
C. Network Services > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
D. Configuration > System Configuration > Provisioning > Set the External Manager Address
Answer: D

Question No : 7
The firmware for the primary codec of a Cisco TelePresence System 3010 is being upgraded. Which codec CLI command could be used to check on the progress of the update? 210-250
A. utils upgrade display
B. utils system version
C. show upgrade detail
D. show system upgrade
Answer: C

Question No : 8
An engineer is creating a system backup on a Cisco VCS. Which two options describe characteristics of Cisco VCS backups? (Choose two.)
A. The backup can be sent to the remote SFTP server.
B. The backup can be encrypted with a password.
C. The backup can be sent to additional servers in the cluster.
D. The backup is valid for 30 days.
E. The backup is stored in Cisco TMS.
F. The backup is only downloadable locally.
Answer: B,F

Question No : 9
Cisco TMS is unable to manage endpoints and an engineer is required to capture logs to determine the cause. What is the menu path that the engineer should follow to capture and download logs from Cisco TMS?
A. Administrative Tools > Diagnostics > TMS Tickets
B. Administrative Tools > TMS Server Maintenance > Download Diagnostic Files
C. Systems > Navigator > Diagnostics > Download Diagnostic Files
D. Systems > Navigator > TMS Logs
Answer: B

Question No : 10
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Answer: D

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