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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSD
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Exam Code: 70-357
Total Questions: 66 Q&As
lead4pass 70-357 dumps
QUESTION 1
A company plans to deploy an Office 365 tenant. You have two servers named FS1 and FS2 that have the Federation Service Proxy role service installed.
You must deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on Windows Server 2012.
You need to configure name resolution for FS1 and FS2.
What should you do?
A. On FS1 and FS2, add the cluster DNS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the hosts file.
B. On FS1 only, add the cluster DNS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the hosts file.
C. On FS1 only, add the cluster NetBIOS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the LMHOSTS file.
D. On FS1 and FS2, add the cluster NetBIOS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the LMHOSTS file.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have an on-premises Exchange 2010 organization. All clients use Outlook 2007 SP1. You enable online archive mailboxes in Exchange Online for several users.
The users are unable to access the online archive mailboxes in Microsoft Outlook.
You need to ensure that users can access the online archive mailboxes in Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Apply Outlook 2007 SP2 and all related updates.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the users to the Global Administrators group.
C. Instruct the users to access the online archive mailboxes by using Outlook Web App.
D. Delete and recreate the users’ Outlook profiles.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company decides to migrate all users to Office 365.
As part of the migration, Office 365 ProPlus will be installed on all client computers and the company will use Office Telemetry. You need to produce a report that contains the information collected by Office Telemetry.
Which three types of information can you include in the report? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Information about files that are not in the Most Recently Used list
B. The names of add-ins and solutions that interact with Office
C. The file names of Office files that are in the Most Recently Used list
D. System information such as user name and computer name
E. The contents of all files that are in the Most Recently Used list
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
The company requests that you implement a document collaboration and social networking solution that meets the following requirements:
Users must be able to join groups to receive project updates.
Any user must be able to post an event.
You need to implement a solution.
Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft Yammer
C. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An organization prepares to implement Office 365.
You have the following requirements:
Gather information about the requirements for the Office 365 implementation. Use a supported tool that provides the most comprehensive information about the current environment.
You need to determine the organization’s readiness for the Office 365 implementation.
What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Get-MsolCompanylnformation.
B. Run the OnRamp for Office 365 tool.
C. Install the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
D. Run the Office 365 Deployment Readiness Tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An organization migrates to Office 365.
The Office 365 administrator must be notified when Office 365 maintenance activities are planned.
You need to configure the administrator’s computer to receive the notifications.
What should you configure?
A. Office 365 Management Pack for System Center Operations Manager
B. Service requests
C. Service health page
D. Office 365 Service Health RSS Notifications feed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a workstation that runs Windows 8.
You need to install the prerequisite components so that you can view mail protection reports on the workstation.
Which two items must you install? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. SQL Server Analysis Services
B. Microsoft Connectivity Analyzer Tool
C. Microsoft Access 2013
D. .NET Framework 4.5
E. Microsoft Excel 2013
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 8
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You need to verify whether free/busy information sharing with external users is configured.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you use?
A. Test-OutlookConnectivity
B. Test-FederationTrust
C. Get-OrganizationRelationship
D. Get-MSOLDomainFederationSettings
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags are unavailable from Outlook 2010.
You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010.
What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online administrator.
The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs.
You need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your company has 100 user mailboxes. The company purchases a subscription to Office 365 for professionals and small businesses. You need to enable the Litigation Hold feature for each mailbox.
What should you do first?
A. Create a service request.
B. Modify the default retention policy.
C. Enable audit logging for all of the mailboxes.
D. Purchase a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your company purchases an Office 365 plan. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services domain.
User1 must manage Office 365 delegation for the company.
You need to ensure that User1 can assign administrative roles to other users.
What should you do?
A. Use a password administrator account to assign the role to User1.
B. Use a user management administrator account to assign the role to User1.
C. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the global administrator role.
D. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the password administrator role.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. core
B. aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. 200-105 dumps The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center?
A. It supports NIC teaming.
B. It removes STP dependency.
C. It increases scalability.
D. It improves convergence time.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an Internet connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol between the two locations?
A. GRE over IPsec
B. IPsec
C. GRE
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the sameremote network. 200-105 dumps If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: A, D

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Certified Associate, Java SE 8 Programmer
Exam Name: Java SE 8 Programmer I
Exam Code: 1Z0-808
Total Questions: 236 Q&As
1Z0-808 dumps
QUESTION 1
Consider
Integer number = Integer.valueOff 808.1″);
Which is true about the above statement?
A. The value of the variable number will be 808.1
B. The value of the variable number will be 808
C. The value of the variable number will be 0.
D. A NumberFormatException will be throw.
E. It will not compile.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism?
A. Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E. Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
Which two are benefits of polymorphism? 1Z0-808 dumps
A. Faster code at runtime
B. More efficient code at runtime
C. More dynamic code at runtime
D. More flexible and reusable code
E. Code that is protected from extension by other classes
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Given the code fragment:
1Z0-808 dumps
What could expression1 and expression2 be, respectively, in order to produce output ?, 16?
A. + +a, – -b
B. + +a, b- –
C. A+ +, – – b
D. A + +, b – –
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Given:
1Z0-808 dumps
What is the result?
A. Null
B. Compilation fails
C. An exception is thrown at runtime
D. 0
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Given:
public class X {
static int i;
int j;
public static void main(String[] args) {
X x1 = new X();
X x2 = new X();
x1.i = 3;
x1.j = 4;
x2.i = 5;
x2.j = 6;
System.out.println(
x1.i + ” “+
x1.j + ” “+
x2.i + ” “+
x2.j);
} }
What is the result?A. 3 4 5 6
B. 3 4 3 6
C. 5 4 5 6
D. 3 6 4 6
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
1Z0-808 dumps Given:
1Z0-808 dumps
What is the result?
A. true true
B. true false
C. false true
D. false false
E. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Given the definitions of the MyString class and the Test class:
1Z0-808 dumps
What is the result?
1Z0-808 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which three statements are true about the structure of a Java class?
A. A class can have only one private constructor.
B. A method can have the same name as a field.
C. A class can have overloaded static methods.
D. A public class must have a main method.
E. The methods are mandatory components of a class.
F. The fields need not be initialized before use.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Given:
class MarksOutOfBoundsException extends IndexOutOfBoundsException { }
public class GradingProcess {
void verify(int marks) throws IndexOutOfBoundsException {
if (marks > 100) {
throw new MarksOutOfBoundsException();
}
if (marks > 50) {
System.out.print(“Pass”);
} else {
System.out.print(“Fail”);
} }
public static void main(String[] args) {
int marks = Integer.parseInt(args[2]);
try {
new GradingProcess().verify(marks));
} catch(Exception e) {
System.out.print(e.getClass());
} } }
1Z0-808 dumps And the command line invocation:
Java grading process 89 50 104
What is the result?
A. Pass
B. Fail
C. Class MarketOutOfBoundsException
D. Class IndexOutOfBoundsException
E. Class Exception
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
int [] array = {1,2,3,4,5};for (int i: array) {
if ( i < 2) {
keyword1 ;
}
System.out.println(i);
if ( i == 3) {
keyword2 ;
}}
What should keyword1 and keyword2 be respectively, in oreder to produce output 2345?
A. continue, break
B. break, break
C. break, continue
D. continue, continue
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Given the for loop construct:
for ( expr1 ; expr2 ; expr3 ) {
statement;
}
Which two statements are true?
A. This is not the only valid for loop construct; there exits another form of for loop constructor.
B. The expression expr1 is optional. it initializes the loop and is evaluated once, as the loop begin.
C. When expr2 evaluates to false, the loop terminates. It is evaluated only after each iteration through the loop.
D. The expression expr3 must be present. It is evaluated after each iteration through the loop.
Correct Answer: BC

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 1
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing Group Policy preference.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Group Policy preference?
A. It supports applications and operating system features that are not compatible with Group Policy
B. It does not support item-level targeting.
C. It is the same as Group Policy filtering.
D. It does not cause the application or operating system feature to disable the user interface for the settings they configure.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing connection security rules.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to connection security rules? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Connection security rules allows for traffic to be secured via IPsec.
B. Connection security rules do not allow the traffic through the firewall.
C. Connection security rules are applied to programs or services.
D. Connection security rules are applied between two computers.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a production Active Directory forest named contoso.com and a test Active Directory forest named contoso.test. A trust relationship does not exist between the forests. 70-410 dumps
In the contoso.test domain, you create a backup of a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1.
You transfer the backup of GPO1 to a domain controller in the contoso.com domain.
You need to create a GPO in contoso.com based on the settings of GPO1.You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get- GPO cmdlet and the Copy- GPO cmdlet.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the New- GPO cmdlet and the Import- GPO cmdlet.
C. From Group Policy Management, create a new starter GPO.Right-click the new starter GPO, and then click Restore from Backup.
D. From Group Policy Management, right-click the Croup Policy Objects container, and then click Manage Backups.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You try to install the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 Features feature on Server1, but the installation fails repeatedly. You need to ensure that the feature can be installed on Server1. What should you do?
A. Install the Web Server (IIS) server role.
B. Run the Add-WindowsPackagecmdlet.
C. Run the Add-AppxProvisionedPackagecmdlet.
D. Connect Server1 to the Internet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain namedL2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing Storage Spaces.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Storage Spaces?
A. Mirroring and parity are optional resilient storage modes of Storage Spaces.
B. Failover clustering is not supported by Storage Spaces.
C. Storage spaces are virtual disks with associated attributes such as a preferred level of resiliency, and thin or fixed provisioning.
D. Storage spaces are a collection of physical disks with associated attributes such as a preferred level of resiliency, and thin or fixed provisioning.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You have a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has a checkpoint.
You need to modify the Checkpoint File Location of VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Copy the checkpoint file.
B. Delete the checkpoint.
C. Shut down VM1.
D. Pause VM1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 and Server2 run a Server with a GUI installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You remove the Graphical Management Tools and Infrastructure feature on Server2. You need to restart Server2. What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct statements.
Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. 70-410 dumps You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-410 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains five domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The contoso.com domain contains two user accounts named Admin1 and Admin2.
You need to ensure that Admin1 and Admin2 can configure hardware and services on all of the member servers in the forest. The solution must minimize the number of privileges granted to Admin1 and Admin2.
Which built-in groups should you use?
A. Administrators local groups
B. Administrators domain local groups
C. Domain Admins global groups
D. Server Operators global groups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All of the AppLocker policy settings for the member servers are configured in a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1.
A member server named Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On Server1, you test a new set of AppLocker policy settings by using a local computer policy. You need to merge the local AppLocker policy settings from Server1 into the AppLocker policy settings of GPO1.
What should you do?
A. From Local Group Policy Editor on Server1, export an .inf file. Import the .inf file by using Group Policy Management Editor.
B. From Server1, run the Set-ApplockerPolicycmdlet.
C. From Local Group Policy Editor on Server1, export an .xml file. Import the .xml file by using Group Policy Management Editor.
D. From Server1, run the New-ApplockerPolicycmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers in the L2P.com domain have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed, while domain controllers have Windows Server 2008 R2 installed.
You are then tasked with deploying a new Windows Server 2012 R2 domain controller. You are preparing to install the DNS Server role, and enable the global catalog server option.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making use of Server Manager.
B. You should consider making use of the Active Directory Installation Wizard.
C. You should consider making use of the DHCP Installation Wizard
D. You should consider making use of TS Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. The domain contains a standalone server named Server2 that is located in a perimeter network. 70-410 dumps Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to manage Server2 remotely from Server1.
What should you do?
A. From Server2, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
B. From Server1, run the winrni command.
C. From Server2, run the winrm command.
D. From Server1, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You have a server named Server1 that has the Print and Document Services server role installed. You need to provide users with the ability to manage print jobs on Server1 by using a web browser.
What should you do?
A. Start the Computer Browser service and set the service to start automatically.
B. Install the LPD Service role service.
C. Install the Internet Printing role service.
D. Start the Printer Extensions and Notifications service and set the service to start automatically.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CompTIA Cloud Essentials
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam
Exam Code: CLO-001
Total Questions: 230 Q&As
CLO-001 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?
A. Pay as you go agreements
B. Short-term financial commitment
C. Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D. Vendor lock-in potential
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?
A. It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B. It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C. It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D. It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server? CLO-001 dumps
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example of:
A. IaaS.
B. SaaS
C. PaaS.
D. On-demand software.
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in a given time?
A. Network bandwidth
B. Network QoS
C. Network latency
D. Network speed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
How can the internal IT department successfully react to cloud computing?
A. By becoming an external cloud provider
B. By becoming an internal cloud provider
C. By outsourcing all IT services
D. By solely focusing on security issues
Correct Answer: B
CLO-001 dumps
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?
A. Improving cost structure
B. Improving customer satisfaction
C. Increasing control over IT systems
D. Decrease of security issues
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following applications is MOST suitable for a cloud computing pilot? CLO-001 dumps
A. Applications that are currently expensive to maintain because of interconnections
B. Applications that are easy to migrate and have some business value
C. Applications with high risk and little business value
D. Legacy applications that are coupled to specific hardware and systems software
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an important skill for an organization wanting to adopt an IaaS strategy?
A. Visualization technology
B. Application service procurement
C. Customer relations
D. Security and risk management
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP characteristic does this scenario describe?
A. latency
B. starvation
C. connectionless communication
D. nonsequencing unordered packets
E. jitter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, 300-101 pdf OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?
A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B’s routing table. 300-101 dumps After debugging IPv6 packets, the message “not a router” is found in the output. Why is the routing information not being learned by Router B?
A. OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
B. The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C. An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is connected to Router A.
D. IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.
Correct Answer: D
300-101 dumps
QUESTION 5
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?
A. Disable CDP on the interface.
B. Execute the vpdn enable command.
C. Execute the no switchport command.
D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What is the default OSPF hello interval on a Frame Relay point-to-point network?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A router with an interface that is configured with ipv6 address autoconfig also has a link-local address assigned. Which message is required to obtain a global unicast address when a router is present?
A. DHCPv6 request
B. router-advertisement
C. neighbor-solicitation
D. redirect
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Under which condition does UDP dominance occur? 300-101 dumps
A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C. when WRED is enabled
D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?
A. Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.
B. Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C. Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D. All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command? 300-101 pdf
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which protocol uses dynamic address mapping to request the next-hop protocol address for a specific connection?
A. Frame Relay inverse ARP
B. static DLCI mapping
C. Frame Relay broadcast queue
D. dynamic DLCI mapping
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even if no interesting traffic exists. 300-101 dumps Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?
A. TCP Adjust
B. Dialer Persistent
C. PPPoE Groups
D. half-bridging
E. Peer Neighbor Route
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, 100-105 dumps what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 5
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6? 100-105 dumps
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Correct Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 7
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? 100-105 pdf (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.)
A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.
B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface.
C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.
D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.
E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD

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Question No: 1
Which steps do you have to perform once before you can create SAP HANA development objects?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Create an SAP HANA XS project.
B. Create a dataflow model in the AFM.
C. Create a predictive model using PAL.
D. Create a repository workspace
Answer: AD

Question No: 2
What statement do you have to run before you can return table results from a procedure? C_HANAIMP_12 pdf
A. CREATE VIEW
B. CREATE TABLE
C. CREATE TYPE
D. CREATE TABLE TYPE
Answer: C

Question No: 3
What does SAP HANA load when starting up and before indicating that it is ready?
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Some column tables
B. Some row tables
C. All partitions
D. All system tables
E. All row tables
Answer: ADE
C_HANAIMP_12 dumps
Question No: 4           C_HANAIMP_12 dumps
What combination enabled real-time computing?
A. Multicore CPUs and solid-state disks
B. In-memory technology with solid-state disks
C. Multicore CPUs with large level 1 caches
D. In-memory technology and multicore CPUs
Answer: D

Question No: 5
You have a view with two tables, joined by a left outer join. If you redesign the view and accidently swap the two tables around, what should you do to the join?
A. Change the join to a referential join.
B. Keep the left outer join.
C. Change the join to a text join.
D. Change the join to a right outer join.
Answer: D

Question No: 6
Which sentence best describes SAP HANA Live?
A. Analytical reporting moving back to the OLAP system
B. Operational reporting moving back to the OLTP system
C. Operational reporting moving back to the OLAP system
D. Analytical reporting moving back to the OLTP system
Answer: B

Question No: 7
Which of the following data operations can you perform with SDA?
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Physical data warehouse
B. Logical data warehouse
C. Big data
D. Real-time replication
E. Data federation
Answer: BCE

Question No: 8
Which of the following terms are associated with an operational system? C_HANAIMP_12 dumps
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. OLTP
B. OLAP
C. Transactional
D. Data warehouse
Answer: AC

Question No: 9
In which SAP HANA studio perspective do you find the Quick View tab options?
A. Developer perspective
B. Modeler perspective
C. Plan visualizer perspective
D. Administration perspective
Answer: B

Question No: 10
What should you keep in mind about procedures? C_HANAIMP_12 pdf
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. They may have input parameters.
B. They are NOT open to SQL injection.
C. They can call table functions.
D. They must return values.
E. They can call views.
Answer: ACE

Question No: 11
What is normally used to build SAP HANA XS applications inside SAP HANA?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. JavaScript
B. Java
C. ABAP
D. SAPUIS
Answer: AD

Question No: 12
Which can a level hierarchy do?
A. Be used for a bill of materials structure
B. Enable drill-down in a value help list
C. Show variable deepness in the data
D. Have time-dependency
Answer: B

Question No: 13
Your schemas in development and production have different names. What do you use to ensure you do not receive activation errors when importing information models into production?
A. Refactoring
B. CDS
C. Mass copy
D. Schema mapping
Answer: D

Question No: 14
What data source is available for join nodes in calculation views?
A. Scalar functions from all SAP HANA systems
B. Web services from the Internet
C. Calculation views from other tenants in an MDC system
D. All procedures in the current SAP HANA system
Answer: C

Question No: 15
Which text feature do you use to find sentiment in textual data? C_HANAIMP_12 dumps
A. Full-text index
B. Text analysis
C. Text mining
D. Fuzzy text search
Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You are the purchasing manager for your company.
You need to create a trade agreement with a supplier that will allow for a price of $44.00 on product M5814 from July 1 until August 31.
What should you configure for the relation on the price/discount journal?
A. multiline discount
B. total discount
C. price
D. line discount
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are an accounts payablecoordinator. MB6-890 pdf
You want to track the fees paid on transport for various items purchased from a vendor.
What should you do?
A. Create item charges groups.
B. Create delivery charges groups.
C. Create charge codes.
D. Create vendor charges groups.
Correct Answer: C
MB6-890 dumps
QUESTION 3                MB6-890 dumps
You are a purchasing agent.
Your company agrees on a purchase price with a supplier. You create a purchase agreement.
Which two tasks can you perform with the agreement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Createa release order when no commitment is defined for quantity of a product.
B. Create purchase agreements based on quality or weight.
C. Define a validity period for the purchase agreement.
D. Put purchase agreements on hold during ordering.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
You are working with a vendor who supplies you with apparel and sporting good products. You are negotiating a new purchase agreement with thevendor.
The agreement terms you have arranged with the vendor are for a 3 percent discount on all of the sporting good products when the order volume over the next month is at least 50,000 USD.
Which commitment type should you use?
A. product quantity
B. product value
C. product category value
D. value
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are the controller at Contoso, Ltd. You have configured the chart ofaccounts for the company and included two main accounts that should be used for posting vendor account balances. MB6-890 pdf One is used for regular external vendor accounts, and the other is used for intercompany vendor accounts.
You need to configure the system touse these two main accounts.
What should you do?
A. Create a vendor posting profile.
B. Create a journal name.
C. Create an inventory posting profile.
D. Create an allocation journal.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are the payroll manager for your company. You are responsible for paying commission to sales personnel. One rulefor the company is to pay a higher commission rate for new customers. MB6-890 dumps
You need to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade to calculate these amounts.
What should you set up in Microsoft Dynamics AX to capture the sales from those customersdefined as new?
A. Commission posting
B. Commission calculation
C. Customer group for commissions
D. Sales group
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are the accounts receivable manager.
You need to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade so that your customer receives a 6 percent discount on all low-margin items that they buy from you from April 1 through April 30.
What should you create?
A. a purchase agreement
B. a price discount journal
C. a line discount journal
D. a sales agreement
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You are the purchasing agent for your company.
You create a purchase requisition workflow to control the process.
What are two activities that happen duringthis process? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. submitting the purchase order to the vendor
B. submitting a purchase requisition
C. creating a purchase order
D. approval of the purchase requisition
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
You are theaccounting manager for your company and are responsible for setting up the processing of sales orders.
You are asked to add a new product in such a way that allows an entry clerk to add a $65 charge for installation on every sales order. MB6-890 pdf
Which three items can you use to perform this configuration in Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a supplementary item
B. a charges code
C. an auto charge
D. a service item
E. a stocked product
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
You are the purchasing agent for your company. You create a request for quotation (RFQ) and send it to vendors.
You need to categorize the responses you receive from the vendors. MB6-890 dumps
What should you set up?
A. Purchase agreement classification
B. Results view
C. Reason codes
D. Vendor reply status
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question. 300-135 pdf
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems. 300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
You have received notification from network monitoring system that link between R1 and R5 is down and you noticed that the active router for HSRP group 1 has not failed over to the standby router for group 1. You are required to troubleshoot and identify the issue. 300-135 pdf
A. There is an HSRP group track command misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP group priority misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
D. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
E. This is not an HSRP issue; this is routing issue.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 300-135 dumps
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 5
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 pdf
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two ) 300-135 dumps
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion
B. To authorize user network access
C. To report and alert link up / down instances
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 3
Select and Place:
200-155
Select and Place:
200-155
Correct Answer:
200-155
QUESTION 4       200-155
Which statement describes an EIGRP feasible successor route?
A. A primary route, added to the routing table
B. A backup route, added to the routing table
C. A primary route, added to the topology table
D. A backup route, added to the topology table
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SLIP
D. LCP
E. DLCI
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10             200-155
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

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Question No : 1
A technician is tasked with performing a room readiness assessment in preparation for an immersive video endpoint. What are three Cisco best practices regarding lighting recommendations for the room? (Choose three.)
A. The bulb temperature should be between 4000 and 4100K.
B. Key lighting should be between 200 and 400 Lux with the endpoint powered on.
C. Shoulder lighting should not exceed two times the facial lighting values with the endpoint off.
D. Use direct lighting fixtures.
E. Within the camera field of view, the lighting for all parts of the room should not fluctuate more than 100 Lux.
F. Avoid using dimming light control systems.
Answer: A,C,E

Question No : 2
Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.)
A. auto-attendant
B. ClearPath
C. Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers
D. Cascading
E. Active presence for all devices
F. Support for Conductor
G. Native scheduling capabilities
Answer: B,D,E,F

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-250
Which configuration item shown in the exhibit should be used to assign the internal and external video communication server address for this group of users?  210-250
A. User Settings > Video Address pattern
B. Administrative Tools > User Settings
C. Configuration Template > Edit Template
D. User Import > Configuration
Answer: C

Question No : 4
A network engineer wants to automate the monitoring of Cisco TelePresence TX systems.
Which step should the engineer take first?
A. Configure Cisco TMS on the codec.
B. Configure Medianet on the codec.
C. Configure NTP on the codec.
D. Configure Multiway on the codec.
E. Configure SNMP on the codec.
Answer: E

Question No : 5
Which three features does Cisco VCS provide? (Choose three.)
A. native Cisco SCCP telephony integration
B. SIP-H.323 interworking functionality
C. native scheduling
D. SIP trunk integration with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. third-party standards-based H.323 and SIP device registration
F. reverse proxy functionality
Answer: B,D,E

Question No : 6
A Unified Communications engineer wants to configure a Cisco TelePresence SX endpoint using static IP addressing to use a different TFTP server. Which path will allow the engineer to complete this configuration?
A. Network Services > Network 1 > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
B. Network > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
C. Network Services > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
D. Configuration > System Configuration > Provisioning > Set the External Manager Address
Answer: D

Question No : 7
The firmware for the primary codec of a Cisco TelePresence System 3010 is being upgraded. Which codec CLI command could be used to check on the progress of the update? 210-250
A. utils upgrade display
B. utils system version
C. show upgrade detail
D. show system upgrade
Answer: C

Question No : 8
An engineer is creating a system backup on a Cisco VCS. Which two options describe characteristics of Cisco VCS backups? (Choose two.)
A. The backup can be sent to the remote SFTP server.
B. The backup can be encrypted with a password.
C. The backup can be sent to additional servers in the cluster.
D. The backup is valid for 30 days.
E. The backup is stored in Cisco TMS.
F. The backup is only downloadable locally.
Answer: B,F

Question No : 9
Cisco TMS is unable to manage endpoints and an engineer is required to capture logs to determine the cause. What is the menu path that the engineer should follow to capture and download logs from Cisco TMS?
A. Administrative Tools > Diagnostics > TMS Tickets
B. Administrative Tools > TMS Server Maintenance > Download Diagnostic Files
C. Systems > Navigator > Diagnostics > Download Diagnostic Files
D. Systems > Navigator > TMS Logs
Answer: B

Question No : 10
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
An attacker attempts to create a DoS event against the VoIP system of a company. The attacker uses a tool to flood the network with a large number of SIP INVITE traffic. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to thwart such an attack?
A. Install IDS/IPS systems on the network
B. Force all SIP communication to be encrypted
C. Create separate VLANs for voice and data traffic
D. Implement QoS parameters on the switches
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Joe, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), was an Information security professor and a Subject Matter Expert for over 20 years. He has designed a network defense method which he says is significantly better than prominent international standards. He has recommended that the company use his cryptographic method.
Which of the following methodologies should be adopted?
A. The company should develop an in-house solution and keep the algorithm a secret.
B. The company should use the CEO’s encryption scheme.
C. The company should use a mixture of both systems to meet minimum standards.
D. The company should use the method recommended by other respected information security organizations.
Correct Answer: D
CAS-002
QUESTION 3                       CAS-002
A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks. Which of the following should the CSO conduct FIRST?
A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.
C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis.
D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An administrator wants to enable policy based flexible mandatory access controls on an open source OS to prevent abnormal application modifications or executions. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this?
A. Access control lists
B. SELinux
C. IPtables firewall
D. HIPS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the proprietary web application before launch. Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased application? (Select TWO).
A. Code review
B. Sandbox
C. Local proxy
D. Fuzzer
E. Port scanner
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed. The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details. Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?
A. Client side input validation
B. Stored procedure
C. Encrypting credit card details
D. Regular expression matching
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. CAS-002 The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products.
B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete.
C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO.
D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A new piece of ransomware got installed on a company’s backup server which encrypted the hard drives containing the OS and backup application configuration but did not affect the deduplication data hard drives. During the incident response, the company finds that all backup tapes for this server are also corrupt. Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?
A. Determining how to install HIPS across all server platforms to prevent future incidents
B. Preventing the ransomware from re-infecting the server upon restore
C. Validating the integrity of the deduplicated data
D. Restoring the data will be difficult without the application configuration
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
The security engineer receives an incident ticket from the helpdesk stating that DNS lookup requests are no longer working from the office. The network team has ensured that Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity are working. Which of the following tools would a security engineer use to make sure the DNS server is listening on port 53?
A. PING
B. NESSUS
C. NSLOOKUP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A large enterprise acquires another company which uses antivirus from a different vendor. The CISO has requested that data feeds from the two different antivirus platforms be combined in a way that allows management to assess and rate the overall effectiveness of antivirus across the entire organization. Which of the following tools can BEST meet the CISO’s requirement?
A. GRC
B. IPS
C. CMDB
D. Syslog-ng
E. IDS
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Change the corresponding loopback address.
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Clear the EIGRP process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which statement about NAT64 is true?
A. NAT64 provides address family translation and translates IPv4 to IPv6 and IPv6 to IPv4.
B. NAT64 provides address family translation and can translate only IPv6 to IPv4.
C. NAT64 should be considered as a permanent solution.
D. NAT64 requires the use of DNS64.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101
Which two options are effects of the given configuration? (Choose two) 400-101
A. It enables Cisco Express Forwarding on interlace FastEthernet0/0
B. It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on UDP port 49152
C. It enables NetFlow switching on interface FastEthernet0/0
D. It configures the export process to include the BGP peer AS of the router gathering the data
E. It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on TCP port 49152
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about the BGP community attribute are true? (Choose two.)
A. Routers send the community attribute to all BGP neighbors automatically.
B. A router can change a received community attribute before advertising it to peers.
C. It is a well-known, discretionary BGP attribute.
D. It is an optional transitive BGP attribute.
E. A prefix can support only one community attribute.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
In which type of EIGRP configuration is EIGRP IPv6 VRF-Lite available?
A. stub
B. named mode
C. classic mode
D. passive
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which option describes a limitation of Embedded Packet Capture?
A. It can capture data only on physical interfaces and subinterfaces.
B. It can store only packet data.
C. It can capture multicast packets only on ingress.
D. It can capture multicast packets only on egress.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three capabilities are provided by MLD snooping? (Choose three.)
A. dynamic port learningB. IPv6 multicast router discovery
C. user-configured ports age out automatically
D. a 5-minute aging timer
E. flooding control packets to the egress VLAN
F. a 60-second aging timer
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It can be based on the source router ID.
B. It can be based on the external route tag.
C. It affects LSA flooding.
D. It can be based on the as-path.
E. It can be based on distance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about IGPs are true? (Choose Two)
A. RIPv2 and IS-IS calculate the metric of a link based on the bandwidth of a link.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are classless protocols.
C. OSPF and EIGRP have high resource usage.D. RiPv2 and EIGRP support VLSM.
E. RIPv2 and OSPF are distance vector protocols.
F. IS-IS and EIGRP are link-state protocols.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It forwards multicast packets on a source tree.
B. It requires an RP.
C. It forwards multicast packets on a shared distribution tree.
D. It floods multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
E. It floods multicast packets throughout the network.
F. It forwards multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
Correct Answer: AE

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