Pass Microsoft Azure AZ-302 exam, latest AZ-302 dumps exam practice questions and Answers

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Exam AZ-302: Microsoft Azure Solutions Architect Certification Transition: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-az-302.aspx

This exam is intended only for those candidates who have taken Exam 70-535: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions. If you have not taken Exam 535, you will not earn a certification by taking this exam.

The transition exam is intended for people who have already demonstrated skills in the content domain by passing the existing exam(s) that the new role-based certification exams will be replacing. They cover the delta between the current certification and what we expect people who earn the new certification to be able to do. We don’t want to retest people on the same content where they have already demonstrated competence by passing the existing exam.

Transition exams cover net new content, content that wasn’t covered in enough depth, and content on aspects of the technology that have likely changed since someone took the exam. As a result, the transition exam is not shorter than a typical exam but more focused on the key tasks and skills that were not assessed in the existing exam or certification that is being replaced.

Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translates business requirements into secure, scalable,
and reliable solutions.

Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations, including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting, and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affects an overall solution.

Candidates must be proficient in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.

Microsoft Certification Exam List | Microsoft Learning: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-list.aspx

Pass the Microsoft Exam checklist: https://www.lead4pass.com/microsoft.html

Latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-302 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1

You have an on premises Active Directory forest and an Azure Active Directory Azure AD) tenant. All Azure AD users

are assigned a Premium P1 license. 

You deploy Azure AD Conned 

Which two features ate available m this environment that can reduce operational overhead tot your company\\’s help

desk? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. 

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point 

A. sell- service password reset 

B. access review 

C. password writeback 

D. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management policies 

E. Microsoft Cloud App Security Conditional At access App Control 

Correct Answer: AD 

 

QUESTION 2

You have an Azure subscription that contains a virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 has two subnets named Subnet1

and Subnet2. VNet1 is in the West Europe Azure region. The subscription contains the virtual machines in the following

table.

lead4pass az-302 exam question q2

You need to deploy an application gateway named AppGW1 to VNet1. What should you do first?
A. Add a load balancer.
B. Add a virtual network.
C. Add a subnet
D. Create a network security group (NSG).
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
You plan to deploy an API by using Azure API Management.
You need to recommend a solution to protect the API from a distribute derail of service (DDoS) attack.
What should you recommend/
A. Create network security groups (NSG)
B. Enable rate limiting
C. Strip the Power-By response header
D. Enable quotas.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?
A. an Azure Event Hub
B. an Azure Notification Hub
C. an Azure Logic App
D. an Azure Service Bus
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
You are developing a .NET Core on-premises application that updates multiple Azure SQL Database instances. The
application must log all update commands attempted to a separate Azure SQL database instance named AuditDb.
You define an outer TransactionScope with a loop to enumerate and run the SQL commands on each customer
database connection and an inner TransactionScope to record all transactions attempted within the outer
TransactionScope to
the AuditDb database.
You need to develop a method to perform the updates to the databases. The solution must meet the following
requirements:
All rows written to the AuditDb database must be committed even if the outer transaction fails.
If an error occurs writing to the AuditDb database, the outer transaction must be rolled back.
If an error occurs writing to the Customer databases, only the outer transaction must be rolled back.
Values for TransactionScopeOption must be specified for the customer databases. Values for TransactionScopeOption
must be specified for the AuditDb database.
Which TransactionScopeOption values should you use?
A. Required for Customer Tran Scope Option and Required for Audit Tran Scope Option
B. Requires New for Customer Tran Scope Option and Suppress for Audit Tran Scope Option
C. Suppress for Customer Tran Scope Option and Suppress for Audit Tran Scope Option
D. Requires New for the Customer Tran Scope Option and Requires New for the Audit Tran Scope Option
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
You plan to move a web application named App1 from an on-premises data center to Azure.
App1 depends on a custom framework that is installed on the host server.
You need to recommend a solution to host App1 in Azure. The solution must meet the following requirements:
App1 must be available to users if an Azure data center becomes unavailable.
Costs must be minimized.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. In two Azure regions, deploy a load balancer and a web app.
B. Deploy a load balancer and a virtual machine scale set across two availability zones.
C. In two Azure regions, deploy a traffic manager profile and a web app.
D. In two Azure regions, deploy a load balancer and a virtual machine scale set.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
You host an on-premises ASP.NET Web API at the company headquarters. The Web API is consumed by applications
running at the company\\’s branch offices using the Azure Relay service. All the users of the applications are on the
same
Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to ensure that the applications can consume the Web API.
What should you do?
A. Create separate AD groups named Senders and Receivers. In Access Control (IAM) for the relay namespace, assign
Senders the Reader role and assign Receivers the Reader role.
B. Create a Shared Access policy for send permissions and another for Receive permissions.
C. Create dedicated Azure AD identities named Sender and Receiver. Assign Sender the Azure AD Identity Reader
role. Assign Receiver the Azure AD Identity reader role. Configure applications to use the respective identities.
D. Create a Shared Access policy for the namespace. Use a connection string in the Web API and use a different
connection string in consumer applications.
Correct Answer: D
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-relay/relay-authentication-and- authorization


QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution.
Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You have the following resource groups:lead4pass az-302 exam question q8Developers must connect to DevServer only through DevWorkstation. To maintain security, DevServer must not accept
connections from the internet.
You need to create a private connection between the DevWokstation and DevServer.
Solution: Configure a public IP address on DevServer_WestCentral. Configure the Network Security Group to allow all
incoming ports.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution lo generate a monthly report of all the new Azure Resource Manager resource
deployment in your subscription. What should you include in the recommendition?
A. Azure Activity Log
B. Azure Monitor action groups
C. Azure Advisor
D. Azure Monitor metrics
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a strategy for the web tier of WebApp1. The solution must minimize What should you
recommend?
A. Create a runbook that resizes virtual machines automatically to a smaller size outside of business hours.
B. Configure the Scale Up settings for a web app.
C. Deploy a virtual machine scale set that scales out on a 75 percent CPU threshold.
D. Configure the Scale Out settings for a web app.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals.
Some question sets might have more than on correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure Subscription1 named
Subscription1. Adatum contains a group named Developers. Subscnpbon1 contains a resource group named Dev.
You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Subscription1, you assign the logic App Operator role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You need to access user claims in the e-commerce web app. What should you do first?
A. Write custom code to make a Microsoft Graph API call from the e commerce web app.
B. Assign the Contributor RBAC role to the e-commerce web app by using the Resource Manager create role
assignment API.
C. Update the e-commerce web app to read the HTTP request header values.
D. Using the Azure CU, enable Cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) from the ecommerce checkout API to the e-
commerce web.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
You need to recommend a high-availability solution for the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should
you include in the recommendation?
A. availability zones
B. an availability set
C. the Premium App Service plan
D. the Isolated App Server plan
Correct Answer: A

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Implementing and Troubleshooting the Cisco Cloud Infrastructure (CLDINF) v1.1: “300-460 exam”. Share the latest 300-460 exam dumps and Practice test questions for free. Real and effective exam questions and answers. 300-460 pdf online Download, 300-460 YouTube video online learning to improve skills! Ciscoexampdf share 20 Practice test questions for FREE! Get the full 300-460 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-460.html (Total questions:107 Q&A)

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Latest effective Cisco 300-460 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
An engineer is configuring a vNIC template. Under which circumstance do they want to disable vNIC fabric failover?
A. The Cisco UCS domain is running in Ethernet switch mode.
B. A named VLAN already exists.
C. The VLAN pin group has been created.
D. The statistics threshold policy has already been set.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-
0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_cha pter_010100.html


QUESTION 2
An engineer is creating WWPN pools to use for vHBAs. Which WWPN must the engineer use?
A. 20:00:20:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
B. 20:XX:XX:25:B5:00:00:00
C. 10:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
D. 20:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3-
1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_c hapter22.pdf


QUESTION 3
An FCoE frame has just arrived on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch and must be switched toward a directlyattached
FCoE storage array. Which two actions must be done to the frame to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. The frame is switched out of a physical Fibre Channel interface.
B. The frame is switched out of a physical Ethernet interface.
C. The frame is switched out of a logical Ethernet interface.
D. The frame is switched out of a logical Fibre Channel interface.
E. The frame encapsulates a UDP/IP packet.
F. The frame encapsulates a TCP/IP packet.
Correct Answer: BF


QUESTION 4
An architect must use legacy Cisco NX-OS 7000 and 2000 Series Switches in a data center to implement
VXLAN and VTEP on a VMware ESXi infrastructure. Which solution allows using VXLAN with VTEP without upgrading
legacy routing and switching infrastructure?
A. VMware NSX
B. OpenStack Neutron
C. Cisco ACI
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which option is the best way to provide templates to end users in Cisco UCS Director?
A. Give access to the template.
B. Assign the template to the standard catalog.
C. Assign the template to the advance catalog.
D. Deploy a copied template.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-460 exam question q6A cloud engineer is replicating a FlexPod design. The current design has a Cisco UCS B- Series Chassis with six Cisco
B200 M2 blades that connect to a NetApp FAS800 storage array. VSAN 10 is configured on the Cisco Nexus 5000
Series Switch to handle all storage traffic. VMs on the Cisco B200 M2 blades can read and write to NAS on the NetApp
FAS8000. The engineer wants to connect a second Cisco UCS B-Series Chassis with four Cisco B200 M4 blades to the
NetApp array. The engineer has configured four Fibre Channel uplink ports from the Cisco UCS 6248 UP Fabric
Interconnect to the Cisco Nexus Fibre Channel ports fc1/23 and fc 1/24. However, the Fibre Channel ports on the Cisco
UCS 6248 fail to initialize after the engineer enables the port.
Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. The SFP type is 10 Gigabit Ethernet instead of 4 Gigabit Ethernet.
B. The port negotiation speed is set to 8 Gbps.
C. The switch port mode on the Cisco Fabric Extender Fibre Channel port is set to NP.
D. The Fibre channel port is set to uplink instead of Fibre Channel storage port.
E. The VSAN under port properties is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
An engineer is configuring two new Cisco UCS domains that are connected to the same network and SAN
infrastructure. What must the engineer do to configure MAC pools and WWPN pools?
A. Configure UCS 1 pool addresses and extend the pools to UCS 2.
B. Configure different pool addresses for each Cisco UCS domain.
C. Configure shared pool addresses for each Cisco UCS domain.
D. Configure the same pool addresses for each Cisco UCS domain.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
An administrator is troubleshooting a virtual switch that does not show up when it is added to the host using the port-
profile management snap-in. Which action is the next step?
A. Enable SR-IOV for the virtual switch inside Hyper-V
B. Add drivers for the virtual switch
C. Reboot the server
D. Enable VMbus for the parent partition and the virtual machine
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/hyperv/gui/config_ guide/2-1/b_GUI
_Hyper-V_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_Hyper-
V_VMFEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_0101.html#task_FD3156BC3C7F48FBB F728E8A824E81CA


QUESTION 9
Which four fields are needed when creating a WWPN pool in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose four)
A. the first and last WWPN address in the block
B. the number of WWPN addresses in the block
C. a unique name for the initiator
D. the first WWPN address in the block
E. the WWN for the initiator
F. a unique name for the pool
G. the last WWPN address in the block
H. a description for the pool
Correct Answer: ABFH
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-
2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_cha
pter_011001.html#task_8717496137259896828


QUESTION 10
Which option lists the default methods that are needed to access a Cisco UCS C-Series via its Lights-Out
Management? (Choose two.)
A. HTTPS
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 11
Which two pieces of information are needed when adding an NFS mount point in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of the NFS server where you plan to store the OS images for Bare Metal Agent to use
B. the locate and organization where the NFS server is located
C. the IP address of the IP share storage system
D. the location of the NFS server where the OS images are stored
E. the IP address of the main UCS server
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/bma- install-
config/52/b_ucsd_bma_install_config_guide_5_2/b_ucsd_bma_install_config_guide_5_2_chapter_
0110.html#task_FB4A6403CF4F4650B31A8C2C6FF4E69F


QUESTION 12
A Cisco UCS blade has just failed. To ensure that the replacement blade can reach Fibre Channel storage, which action
must the server administrator take?
A. Zone the SAN fabric for the new WWPNs.
B. Reconfigure LUN masking on the storage array.
C. Insert the blade into the same chassis and slot.
D. Create a new zoning policy within Cisco UCS Manager.
E. Move the old service profile onto the new hardware.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
A network engineer is optimizing spanning tree in the data center. Which feature must the engineer implement on a
physical switch port that is connected to a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch virtual switch?
A. BPDU guard
B. PortFast trunk
C. port security
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
Two companies want to integrate their storage infrastructure. Both companies use a single Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer
Director, but they use Fibre Channel storage arrays from different vendors. Physical connectivity between the two Cisco
MDS 9513s is already in place. No common VSAN IDs exist between the two companies. Which option is most likely to
achieve the goal?
A. Configure NPV.
B. Configure static FCIDs.
C. Change the storage arrays to the same vendor.
D. Enable FC-NAT.
E. Configure IVR.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is trying to mapping policies. Where can this task be accomplished?
A. Virtual > Physical Infrastructure Policies
B. Virtual > Virtual/Hypervisor Policies
C. Policies > Physical Infrastructure Policies
D. Policies > Virtual/Hypervisor Policies
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs- director/vsphere-mgmt-
guide/50/b_UCS_Director_VMware_vSphere_Management_Guide_50/b_UCS_Director_VMware_
vSphere_Management_Guide_50_chapter_0100.html#topic_736267F57B684D349EBA0C F77B2E17C6


QUESTION 16
Which three statements about context workflow mapping in Cisco UCS Director are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can execute a workflow that contains a set of tasks from within a context of a component.
B. Workflows cannot be mapped in the form of an action, nor can they be executed in the context of a component.
C. You have to browse for a required workflow in the workflow list to execute it
D. Context workflow mapping consists of two stages: Stage 1 ?Create a context mapper task and add it to the workflow
that must be mapped as an action Stage 2 ?Add the workflow to the content mapper list by giving in an action label
E. Context workflow mapping consists of two stages: Stage 1 ?Create the workflow to the content mapper list by giving
in an action label Stage 2 ?Add a context mapper task to the workflow that must be mapped as an action
F. You can map a workflow in the form of an action and execute it in the context of the component
G. Workflows cannot be executed at the component level
Correct Answer: ADF
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs- director/orchestration-
guide/50/b_UCS_Director_Orchestration_Guide_5_0/b_UCS_Director_Orchestration_Guide_5_0_
chapter_0101.html#concept_3BA2EDADF4724218802E5CE3184B27A0


QUESTION 17
Cisco USB Director provides many tools to help diagnose and resolve common problems. Which option
describes the purpose of the system information tool?
A. to view basic and advanced system information, including the license status, database tables version, recourse
usage, logs, and debugging processes for troubleshooting
B. to view product support information
C. to execute JavaScript functions and to define variables and functions, when using cloupia scripts
D. to troubleshoot problems related to various administrative tasks such as connectivity, configuration, and status
Correct Answer: A
Reference: Basic system information includes the version, uptimes, service status, system license status, usage,
compute accounts status, compute server status, storage account status, system catalogs, network device status, and
cloud status.
The advanced system information includes basic system information, and database tables summary, product
configuration, top process information, and information on processors, memory, disks, log files, network, and login. You
can also view the system task status, cloud inventory, and monitoring status.


QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-460 exam question q18Cisco UCS Fabric interconnect A and B have identical uplink configurations. Which option describes the problem of
Fabric interconnect A?
A. Ethernet0/11 on Fabric interconnect A is down.
B. The IOM on Fabric interconnect A was rebooted.
C. FC2/1 on Fabric interconnect A is unplugged or has been replaced with a GLC-T.
D. Fabric interconnect A is powered off.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 19
A cloud engineer is implementing a new cloud infrastructure with the following equipment: One Cisco UCS 5108 AC2 B-
Series Chassis Two Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches Two Cisco UCS 6248 Fabric Interconnects One Cisco UCS
2208XP Fabric Extender Eight Cisco B200 M4 half-width blades Which option describes the most likely problem with
this deployment?
A. The half-width blades are not compatible with the chassis.
B. One additional fabric interconnect is needed, because the chassis can handle only six half-width blades.
C. Two additional fabric interconnects are needed to handle all four blade servers.
D. An additional fabric extender is needed.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
Which option describes the purpose of system VLANs as used in a Cisco Nexus 1000V Switches?
A. is the equivalent of 802.1q tagging in the Cisco Nexus 1000V
B. enables interface connectivity before an interface is programmed via the control plane
C. allows the VSM to send opaque data to all hosts under management
D. supplements pVLAN functionality in a virtualized environment
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-550 exam question q1To make this code work properly, which tine of code should you insert at the blank line?
A. r = requests.get(url, headers=header, verify-False)
B. r = requesis.post(url, data:payload, headers:header, verify:False)
C. r = requests.post(url, data=payload, headers=header, verify=False)
D. r = requests(method=\\’POST\\’, url, data=payload, headers=header. verify=False)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Visore uses which protocol to retrieve information from the Cisco ARIC?
A. REST API
B. OpFlex
C. gRPC
D. Visore API
E. MongoDB
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which two network configuration protocols use XML as a data representation format? (Choose two.)
A. NETCONF
B. CORBA
C. TOSGA
D. SNMP
E. RESTCONF
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 4
Which authentication method can be used to access the ACIAPIC controller?
A. REST API using HTTP and header-based authentication
B. REST API using HTTPS and JSON-formatted username/password payload
C. SOAP API using header-based authentication
D. SOAP API using SSL and header-based authentication
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which two statements about IOS XE on a Cisco CSR1000v Router programmatic interface are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports I2RS.
B. It supports open YANG data models.
C. It supports BGP-LS/PCEP as a southbound interface-
D. It supports RESTCONF.
E. It supports OpFlex.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 6
Which statement about an agentless configuration management system is true?
A. It requires managed hosts to have an interpreter for a high-level language such as Python or Ruby.
B. It uses existing protocols to interface with the managed host.
C. It uses compiled languages as the basis of the domain-specific language to interface with managed hosts.
D. It requires managed hosts to connect to a centralized host to receive updated configurations.
E. It requires a software package to be installed on the managed host.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Management protocols like NETCONF access network elements on well-known ports. Which design practice hardens a
network device implementation?
A. Specify the source interface for SSH.
B. Limit access to port 830, well-known clients, and SSH VTY.
C. Enable CoPP.
D. Configure ip http secure-server.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Where is the node-ui.log stored on the Cisco APIC-EM appliance?
A. in the /var/Iog/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the container that is running the node-ui instance
B. in the Cassandra database instance that is running within the container that is running the node-ui instance
C. in the /opt/CSCOapicem/logs/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
D. in the /var/log/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
E. in the Cisco APIC-EM Cassandra database instance
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
You are developing a YANG data model to represent the functionality of a new network application. Which two YANG
statements do you use la organize the model into a hierarchy? (Choose two.)
A. module
B. grouping
C. submodule
D. augment
E. container
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 10
Which tool streamlines the development of network applications?
A. Java Runtime Engine
B. software development kit
C. command-line interface
D. General Public License
E. package management system
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Cisco APIC-EM is used to add a network-wide marking policy for Cisco Spark users who are connected to a Cisco
Catalyst 6500 device. After this change, wireless users complain about a delay in other applications. What is a possible
reason this delay?
A. The DSCP-to-CoS mappings were configured incorrectly.
B. The policy was also deployed to the WLAN controller and overrode the policies of other applications.
C. You cannot automate policy for more than one real-time application at a time.
D. Policy automation cannot be deployed for wireless and wired elements at the same time.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Which two data representation formats are used in RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HTML
B. YAML
C. XML
D. GML
E. ASN.1
F. JSON
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 13
Which command tests a REST API?
A. nc
B. tcpdump
C. curl
D. telnet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 14
Which network configuration protocol uses JSON as a data representation format?
A. NETCONE
B. SOAP
C. RESTCONF
D. HTML
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
What is the best way to specify the location of Python within a script?
A. #!/usr/bin/env bash
B. #!/usr/bin/env python
C. #!/usr/loca l/bin/python
D. #!/usr/bin/python
E. #!/scriptname
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
Which two protocols are examples of southbound APIs? (Choose two.)
A. VXLAN-GPE
B. LLDP
C. NETCONF
D. IPFIX
E. SYSLOG
F. OpFlex
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-550 exam question q17Based on the YANG data model snippet, which RESTCONF URI should you use to retrieve data from the interfaces
container?
A. /restconf/data/my-interfaces:interfaces
B. /restconf/data/my-interfaces:container:interfaces
C. /restconf/operations/my-interfaces:interfaces
D. /restconf/data/com.my-interfaces:interfaces
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
How are authentication credentials sent in a Cisco APIC REST API authorization request?
A. by using OAuth
B. in a token in the header
C. by using Basic Auth
D. in JSON in the payload
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/
api/rest/b_APIC_RESTful_API_User_Guide/b_IFC_RESTful_API_User_Guide_chapter_ 0100.html


QUESTION 19
Which two statements about OpenFlow are true? (Choose two.)
A. The OpenFlow flow table contains header fields, counters, and actions.
B. OpenFlow automatically determines network forwarding rules.
C. OpenFlow interfaces with the management plane.
D. OpenFlow is a southbound protocol.
E. OpenFlow is an agentless technology, like Ansible.
F. OpenFlow is a northbound protocol.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 20
Which feature enables service function chaining to steer traffic to virtual network functions?
A. GRE
B. VXLAN
C. EH
D. NSH
E. REST
Correct Answer: D

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July 2018 New Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 dumps
A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
The simple syntax of static route:
ip route destination-network-address subnet-mask {next-hop-IP-address | exit-interface} + destination-network-address: destination network address of the remote network + subnet mask: subnet mask of the destination network + next-hopIP-address: the IP address of the receiving interface on the next-hop router + exit-interface: the local interface of this router where the packets will go out In the statement “ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0:
+ 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0: the destination network
+fa0/0: the exit-interface

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol which provides a secure remote access connection to network devices. Communication between the client and server is encrypted in both SSH version 1 and SSH version 2. If you want to prevent non-SSH connections, add the “transport input ssh” command under the lines to limit the router to SSH connections only. 200-125 dumps
Straight (non-SSH) Telnets are refused.

QUESTION 3
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
A. one physical interface for each subinterface
B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C. a management domain for each subinterface
D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E. one subinterface per VLAN
F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation:
This scenario is commonly called a router on a stick.

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
What can be determined about the router from the console output?
A. No configuration file was found in NVRAM.
B. No configuration file was found in flash.
C. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
D. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
When no startup configuration file is found in NVRAM, the System Configuration Dialog will appear to ask if we want to enter the initial configuration dialog or not.

QUESTION 5
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
Neighbor discovery is the first step in getting a link state environment up and running. In keeping with the friendly neighbor terminology, a Hello protocol is used for this step. The protocol will define a Hello packet format and a procedure for exchanging the packets and processing the information the packets contain.
After the adjacencies are established, the routers may begin sending out LSAs. As the term flooding implies, the advertisements are sent to every neighbor. In turn, each received LSA is copied and forwarded to every neighbor except the one that sent the LSA.

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3 MB
B. 4 MB
C. 5 MB
D. 7 MB
E. 8 MB
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
In this example, there are a total of 8 MB, but 3.8 are being used already, so another file as large as 4MB can be loaded in addition to the original file.

QUESTION 7
Which command displays CPU utilization?
A. show protocols
B. show process
C. show system
D. show version
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The “show process” (in fact, the full command is “show processes”) command gives us lots of information about each process but in fact it is not easy to read. Below shows the output of this command (some next pages are omitted).
200-125 dumps
A more friendly way to check the CPU utilization is the command “show processes cpu history”, in which the total CPU usage on the router over a period of time: one minute, one hour, and 72 hours are clearly shown:
200-125 dumps
+ The Y-axis of the graph is the CPU utilization.
+ The X-axis of the graph is the increment within the period displayed in the graph. For example, from the last graph (last 72 hours) we learn that the highest CPU utilization within 72 hours is 37% about six hours ago.

QUESTION 8
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of popular routing protocols are listed below:
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway.
What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Since all the same router (C-router) is the default gateway for all three VLANs, all traffic destined to a different VLA will be sent to the C-router. The C-router will have knowledge of all three networks since they will appear as directly connected in the routing table. Since the C-router already knows how to get to all three networks, no routing protocols need to be configured.

QUESTION 10
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
Both the “ip default-network” and “ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 (next hop)” commands can be used to set the default gateway in a Cisco router.

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
r120#show ip ospf data
OSPF Router with ID (10.0.0.120) (Process ID 1)
Next, who are the other routers in our area?
Router Link States (Area 1)
Link IDADV RouterAgeSeq#ChecksumLink count
10.0.0.11110.0.0.1116000x8000023A 0x0092B31
10.0.0.11210.0.0.11212460×80000234 0x009CAC1
10.0.0.11310.0.0.1131480x8000022C0x0043993
10.0.0.12010.0.0.1201520x800002400x0046CB1
We can see OSPF Router ID will be used as source of Type 1 LSA. Also the router will chose the highest loopback interface as its OSPF router ID (if available).

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the
Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
We use default routing to send packets with a remote destination network not in the routing table to the next-hop router. You should generally only use default routing on stub networks–those with only one exit path out of the network.
According to exhibit, all traffic towards Internet that originates from workstations should forward to Router R1.
Syntax for default route is:
ip route <Remote_Network> <Netmask> <Next_Hop_Address>.

QUESTION 13
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The “show version” command can be used to show the last method to powercycle (reset) a router.
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 14
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
A. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to speed up convergence
D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
E. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
F. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:
OSPF implements a two-tier hierarchical routing model that uses a core or backbone tier known as area zero (0). Attached to that backbone via area border routers (ABRs) are a number of secondary tier areas. The hierarchical approach is used to achieve the following:
Rapid convergence because of link and/or switch failures ?
Deterministic traffic recovery
?
Scalable and manageable routing hierarchy, reduced routing overhead.

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Notice the line, which says “Interface VLAN1, changed state to administratively down”. This shows that VLAN1 is shut down. Hence remote management of this switch is not possible unless VLAN1 is brought back up. Since VLAN1 is the only interface shown in the output, you have to assume that no other VLAN interface has been configured with an IP Address.

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Best Microsoft MCSE 70-463 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You are developing a project that contains multiple SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages. The packages will be deployed to the SSIS catalog. One of the steps in each package accesses an FTP site to download sales transaction data.
You create project parameters to store the username and password that are used to access the FTP site.
You need to ensure that the username and password values are encrypted when they are deployed.
What should you do?
A. Set the Sensitive property of the parameters to True.
B. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package to EncryptSensitiveWithUserKey.
C. Change the parameters to package parameters.
D. Change the project to the Legacy Deployment model.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse every night.
The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closestmatching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the reference table is very large.
If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value.
The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50.
Many values are incorrectly matched.
You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading performance.
What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You install a SQL Server 2012 database engine instance on a production server. A month later, you install SQL Server 2012 Integration Services (SSIS).
You must develop an SSIS project and deploy it to the server by using the Project Deployment model.
Operations Log records that are outside the configured retention period must be cleaned automatically.
You need to create the SSIS catalog on the production server.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Enable XP Command Shell.
B. Enable CLR Integration.
C. Enable OLE Automation.
D. Start the SQL Server Browser service.
E. Enable Cross Database Ownership Chaining
F. Start the SQL Server Agent service
G. Enable Ad Hoc Remote Queries.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 4
A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package on a computer is failing periodically in production. The package was created less than one year ago and was deployed to the SSIS catalog.
Sometimes the package is started on a SQL Agent schedule; sometimes the package is started manually by an SSIS developer by using the Object Explorer in SQL Server Management Studio.
You need to identify the authenticated user responsible for starting the package each time it failed in the past.
Where can you find this information?
A. the SQL Server Log
B. the SSISDB.[catalog].[executions] view
C. the SSISDB.[catalog].[event_messages] view
D. the SQL Agent Job History
E. the SQL Agent Error Log
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You maintain a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package was developed by using SQL Server 2008 Business Intelligence Development Studio (BIDS). 70-463 dumps
The package includes custom scripts that must be upgraded.
You need to upgrade the package to SQL Server 2012.
Which tool should you use?
A. SSIS Upgrade Wizard in SQL Server 2008 BIDS
B. SSIS Upgrade Wizard in SQL Server Data Tools
C. SQL Server DTExecUI utility (dtexecui.exe)
D. SQL Server dtexec utility (dtexec.exe)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are reviewing the design of an existing fact table named factSales, which is loaded from a SQL Azure database by a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package each day. The fact table has approximately 1 billion rows and is dimensioned by product, sales date, and sales time of day.
70-463 dumps
The database administrator is concerned about the growth of the database. Users report poor reporting performance against this database. Reporting requirements have recently changed and the only remaining report that uses this fact table reports sales by product name, sale month, and sale year. No other reports will be created against this table.
You need to reduce the report processing time and minimize the growth of the database.
What should you do?
A. Partition the table by product type.
B. Create a view over the fact table to aggregate sales by month.
C. Change the granularity of the fact table to month.
D. Create an indexed view over the fact table to aggregate sales by month.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table contains orders per day.
Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively.
You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables.
What should you do?
A. Create a time mapping table.
B. Change the level of granularity in both fact tables to be the same.
C. Merge the fact tables.
D. Create a view on the sales table.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are designing a data warehouse for a software distribution business that stores sales by software title. It stores sales targets by software category. Software titles are classified into subcategories and categories. Each software title is included in only a single software subcategory, and each subcategory is included in only a single category. The data warehouse will be a data source for an Analysis Services cube.
The data warehouse contains two fact tables:
factSales, used to record daily sales by software title factTarget, used to record the monthly sales targets by software category
Reports must be developed against the warehouse that reports sales by software title, category and subcategory, and sales targets.
You need to design the software title dimension. The solution should use as few tables as possible while supporting all the requirements.
What should you do?
A. Create three software tables, dimSoftware, dimSoftwareCategory, and dimSoftwareSubcategory and a fourth bridge table that joins software titles to their appropriate category and subcategory table records with foreign key constraints. Direct the cube developer to use key granularity attributes.
B. Create three software tables, dimSoftware, dimSoftwareCategory, and dimSoftwareSubcategory. Connect factSales to all three tables and connect factTarget to dimSoftwareCategory with foreign key constraints. Direct the cube developer to use key granularity attributes.
C. Create one table, dimSoftware, which contains Software Detail, Category, and Subcategory columns. Connect factSales to dimSoftware with a foreign key constraint. Direct the cube developer to use a non-key granularity attribute for factTarget.
D. Create two tables, dimSoftware and dimSoftwareCategory. Connect factSales to dimSoftware and factTarget to dimSoftwareCategory with foreign key constraints. Direct the cube developer to use key granularity attributes.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimUser and dimDistrict dimension tables and the factSales fact table. The dimUser table contains records for each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse; and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts.
The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimUser table.
B. Partition the factSales table on the district column.
C. Create a userDistrict table that contains primary key columns from the dimUser and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the factSales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?
A. Add StartDate and EndDate columns to the customer dimension.
B. Add an IsCurrent column to the customer dimension.
C. Enable Snapshot Isolation on the data warehouse.
D. Add CurrentValue and PreviousValue columns to the customer dimension.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are implementing the indexing strategy for a fact table in a data warehouse. The fact table is named Quotes. The table has no indexes and consists of seven columns:
[ID]
[QuoteDate]
[Open]
[Close]
[High]
[Low]
[Volume]
Each of the following queries must be able to use a columnstore index:
SELECT AVG ([Close]) AS [AverageClose] FROM Quotes WHERE [QuoteDate]
BETWEEN ‘20100101’ AND ‘20101231’.
SELECT AVG([High] – [Low]) AS [AverageRange] FROM Quotes WHERE
[QuoteDate] BETWEEN ‘20100101’ AND ‘20101231’.
SELECT SUM([Volume]) AS [SumVolume] FROM Quotes WHERE [QuoteDate]
BETWEEN ‘20100101’ AND ‘20101231’.
You need to ensure that the indexing strategy meets the requirements. The strategy must also minimize the number and size of the indexes.
What should you do?
A. Create one columnstore index that contains [ID], [Close], [High], [Low], [Volume], and [QuoteDate].
B. Create three coiumnstore indexes:
One containing [QuoteDate] and [Close]
One containing [QuoteDate], [High], and [Low]
One containing [QuoteDate] and [Volume]
C. Create one columnstore index that contains [QuoteDate], [Close], [High], [Low], and [Volume].
D. Create two columnstore indexes:
One containing [ID], [QuoteDate], [Volume], and [Close]
One containing [ID], [QuoteDate], [High], and [Low]
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
Log archival must be automated.
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do? 70-463 dumps
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Correct Answer: J

QUESTION 14
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that copies a large amount of rows from a SQL Azure database. The project uses the Package Deployment Model. This project is deployed to SQL Server on a test server.
You need to ensure that the project is deployed to the SSIS catalog on the production server.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
B. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
D. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
E. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
H. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
Correct Answer: I

QUESTION 15
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
To process complex scientific data originating from a SQL Azure database, a custom task component is added to the project.
You need to ensure that the custom component is deployed on a test environment correctly.
What should you do?
A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
B. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
C. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
D. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
I. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
J. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Correct Answer: B

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High Quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q11-Q40)

QUESTION 11
An administrator issues the show ip interface s0/0 command and the output displays that interface Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up What does “line protocol is up” specifically indicate about the interface?
A. The cable is attached properly.
B. CDP has discovered the connected device.
C. Keepalives are being received on the interface.
D. A carrier detect signal has been received from the connected device.
E. IP is correctly configured on the interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which command is used to build DHCP pool?
A. ipdhcp conflict
B. ipdhcp-server pool DHCP
C. ipdhcp pool DHCP
D. ipdhcp-client pool DHCP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network technician is unable to ping from R1 to R2. What will help correct the problem?
A. Ensure that the serial cable is correctly plugged in to the interfaces.
B. Apply the clock rate 56000 configuration command to the serial0/1 interface of R1.
C. Configure the serial0/1 interfaces on R1 and R2 with the no shutdown command.
D. Change the address of the serial0/1 interface of R1 to 192.1.1.4.
E. Change the subnet masks of both interfaces to 255.255.255.240.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
A. traceroute
B. telnet
C. ping
D. ping ipv6
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which port-security feature allows a switch to learn MAC addresses dynamically and add them to the running configuration?
A. security violation restrict mode
B. switch port protection
C. sticky learning
D. security violation protect mode
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You can configure an interface to convert the dynamic MAC addresses tosticky secure MAC addresses and to add them to the running configuration by enabling sticky learning. To enable sticky learning, enter the switchport port-security macaddress sticky interface configuration command. When you enter this command, the interface converts all the dynamic secure MAC addresses, including those that were dynamically learned before sticky learning was enabled, to sticky secure MAC addresses.

QUESTION 16
Which transport layer protocol is best suited for the transport of VoIP data?
A. RIP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. OSPF
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
CORRECT TEXT
How do you bypass password on cisco device? 100-105 dumps
A. Change the configuration register to 0x2142. With this setting when that router reboots, it bypasses the startup-config and no password is required.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What value should be displayed in Box 1 of the ipconfig output of host A?
A. 172.18.14.5
B. 172.18.14.6
C. 192.168.1.10
D. 192.168.1.11
E. 192.168.1.250
F. 192.168.1.254
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 19
In which two ways does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
B. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
C. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
D. TCP provides synchronized communication.
E. TCP provides best effort delivery.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
TCP uses a sequence number to identify each byte of data. The sequence number identifies the order of the bytes sent from each computer so that the data can be reconstructed in order, regardless of any fragmentation, disordering, or packet loss that may occur during.

QUESTION 20
What is true about ipv6 unique local addresses:
A. Global id
B. Public routable
C. Summarization
D. Unique prefix
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Scenario:
You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing network issues. Troubleshoot the network issues. Router R1 connects the main office to the internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
NAT is enabled on router R1.
The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2.
R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1.
You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured
C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?
A. IEEE 802 1X
B. HSRP
C. port channel
D. router on a stick
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which feature automatically disables Cisco Express Forwarding when it is enabled?
A. multicast
B. IP redirects
C. RIB
D. ACL logging
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
If you enable CiscoExpress Forwarding and then create an access list that uses the logkeyword, the packets that match the access list are not Cisco Express Forwarding switched. They are process switched. Logging disables Cisco Express Forwarding.

QUESTION 24
When troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode, which error condition can be immediately ruled out?
A. giants
B. no buffers
C. collisions
D. ignored
E. dribble condition
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?
A. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
E. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
F. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Scenario:
You work for a company that provides managed network services, and of your real estate clients running a small office is experiencing network issues, Troubleshoot the network issues. 100-105 dumps
Router R1 connects the main office to internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers NAT is enabled on Router R1.
The routing protocol that is enable between routers R1, R2, and R3 is RIPv2.
R1 sends default route into RIPv2 for internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1.
Server1 and Server2 are placed in VLAN 100 and 200 respectively, and dare still running router on stick configuration with router R2.
You have console access on R1, R2, R3, and L2SW1 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
What is the correct statement below after examining the R1 routing table?
A. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses static route instead RIPv2 Because the static route AD that is configured is less than the AD of RIPv2
B. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead static route Because the static route AD that is configured is higher than the AD of RIPv2
C. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses static route instead RIPv2 But the traffic is forwarded to the ISP instead of the internal network.
D. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead static route Because the static route AD that is configured is 255
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Configuration are below for the answer.
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 27
What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network address is being used?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 14
E. 16
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock source?
A. ntp peer
B. ntp broadcast
C. ntp master
D. ntp server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
When you use the ping command to send ICMP messages across a network, what’s the most common request/reply pair you’ll see? (Select one answer choice)
A. Echo request and Echo reply
B. ICMP hold and ICMP send
C. ICMP request and ICMP reply
D. Echo off and Echo on
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
What happens when the cable is too long?
A. Baby Giant
B. Late collision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
The internetwork shown in the diagram is experiencing network connectivity problems.
100-105 dumps
What is the cause of the problem?
A. The cabling connecting host A to Switch3 is too long.
B. The address of host B is a broadcast address.
C. The IP address of interface Fa0/0 of Router1 is not a usable address.
D. The cable connecting Switch2 and Switch3 should be a crossover.
E. The IP address of Server 1 is in the wrong subnet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
If NVRAM lacks boot system commands, where does the router look for the Cisco IOS by default?
A. ROM
B. RAM
C. Flash
D. bootstrap
E. startup-config
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrative distance?
A. IBGP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. EIGRP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Default Distance Value TableThis table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
IGRP
OSPF
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP
Unknown*

QUESTION 36
Which information is used to install the best route to a destination in IP routing table?
A. the tunnel ID
B. the prefix length
C. the interface number
D. the autonomous system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
All devices attached to the network are shown. Which number of collision domains are present in this network?
A. 9
B. 3
C. 6
D. 2
E. 15
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
Both switch and router separate collision domains. In other words, each port of the switch and router creates one collision domain so we have 15 collision domains in this topology. 100-105 dumps

QUESTION 38
What is the requirement of configuring 6to4 tunnelling on two routers?
A. Both ipv6 and ipv4 must be configured
B. Only IPv6
C. Only IPv4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1001
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.
Note:
+ VLAN 0 and 4095 are reserved for system use only. You cannot see or use these VLANs.
+ VLAN 1 and VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs. Default VLANs are created automatically and cannot be configured or deleted by users.
+ VLAN 2 to 1001 are normal VLANs. You can create, use and delete them.
+ VLAN 1002 to 1005 are normal VLANs too but Cisco reserved for FDDI an Token Ring.

QUESTION 40
Which subnet address is for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A. 172.19.20.20
B. 172.19.20.0
C. 172.19.20.32
D. 172.19.20.15
E. 172.19.20.16
Correct Answer: E

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Useful Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-716 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
You need to use Theme settings to customize the Microsoft Dynamics 365 user interface for a customer. Which three actions can you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Export a theme as part of a solution.
B. Adjust accent colors including hover and selection colors.
C. Change the logo and navigation colors.
D. Change icon colors.
E. Provide entity-specific coloring.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 2
You administer a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment for a company.
You need to prevent one specific employee from synchronizing data by using Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook without preventing the employee from using Microsoft Dynamics 365 tor Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Set the Web Mail Merge settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
B. Set the Sync to Outlook settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
C. Set the Dynamics 365 Address Book settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
D. Set the Use Dynamics 365 App for Outlook to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are exclusive to managed solutions and not unmanaged solutions? Fach correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. You cannot export the solution.
B. When you remove the solution, all components items included in the solution are removed.
C. You must define entity assets for every entity that you add to the solution.
D. You must select a publisher for the solution
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which two form areas allow you to read from and write to all visible fields?
Each answer presents a complete solution.
A. Header
B. Body
C. Navigation
D. Footer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You create a business rule for the Account entity.
The business rule must run when you import account records. Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The scope was set to Account.
B. The scope was set to Entity.
C. A business rule snapshot was successful.
D. A business rule is active.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
You are creating a set of system views.
Which three options can you configure for the views? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. read, write, and delete permissions
B. append, assign, and share permissions
C. default sort order for results
D. the widths of each column
E. the columns to display
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 7
You configure a 1:N relationship between two entities and set the cascade rule for deletion to Referential.
What effect does deleting the parent record have on any child records? MB2-716 dumps
A. The child records remain but the link to the parent record is removed.
B. The parent record cannot be deleted until all of the child records are first deleted.
C. The child records are deleted and the link to the parent record shows as deleted.
D. The child records are deleted along with the parent record.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company.
You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group.
Which privilege should you assign to the security role?
A. ISV Extensions
B. Execute Workflow Job
C. Act on behalf of another user
D. Browse Availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to provide users that have the Sales manager security role access to multiple business process flows (BPFs). Which two statements regarding role driven BPFs are true?
A. Users can select a default BPF for all records.
B. If a user does not have access to the current process that is applied to a record, options will be disabled.
C. Set Order defines the order in which BPFs are viewed.
D. You must use teams to control which groups of users have access to a BPF.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You install a unmanaged solution named SolutionA that has a dependency on another unmanaged solution named SolutionB . What is the outcome when you attempt to uninstall SolutionB?
A. SolutionB and all components that are not dependencies of SolutionA are removed.
B. The system prevents you from deleting SolutionB .
C. SolutionB and all related components are removed.
D. The container for SolutionB is removed, but all its components remain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to install the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook on your device. What should you do?
A. In Settings, open Apps for Dynamics 365.
B. Add your user name to the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook eligible user list.
C. Enable the option to automatically add the app to Outlook.
D. Download and install the app from Microsoft AppSource.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are designing a managed solution that will be deployed to another part of the business. Users may want to customize specific parts of the solution after the solution is installed.
Which capability represents a managed property that users can configure;’
A. the ability to change the display name of a system entity
B. the ability to reassign a system dashboard
C. the ability to rename a web resource
D. the ability to add forms to a custom entity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Your company rents tools and machines to customers. You create a custom entity named Equipment to track the tools and machines.
You need to show the hierarchical relationships between various pieces of equipment. How should you configure the relationship?
A. Ensure that you enable Connections for the entity.
B. Set up a parental 1:N relationship between Accounts and Equipment.
C. Create a self-referential relationship and configure hierarchy settings.
D. Set up a N:N relationship between Accounts and Equipment.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two entity properties can you disable on a system entity?
A. Access Teams
B. Notes
C. Allow quick create
D. Queues
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
The receptionist for a company needs to quickly capture basic information regarding visitors. You configure several different quick create forms for the Visitor entity.
The receptionist reports that only one of the quick create forms displays. Why are the other quick create forms not showing?
A. You did not assign the receptionist access to the form.
B. You did not enable the switch forms control for quick create forms.
C. You can only show one quick create form per entity.
D. You did not assign the correct security role for the quick create from.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You create a custom entity. Records are created by users through the user interface, and through a backend Integration. You must combine two fields to populate a new field that will replace the name field on the entity. You need to ensure that the new field displays a result immediately after a new record is saved. What should you use?
A. a background workflow
B. JavaScript code on the record form
C. a form-scoped business rule
D. a calculated field
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Your organization has a custom entity that contains 25 records.
A specific group of users needs access to the records. MB2-716 dumps
You need to ensure that only specified users can access the records and that you can manage access from one place.
What should you do?
A. Add the users to access teams. Grant the teams read and write access for each of the custom entity records.
B. Ask the owner of the custom entity records to grant specific users read and write access to the records.
C. Create an owner team that includes the users. Assign the team a new security role which can access only the custom entity.
D. Modify an existing security role that is common to the users. Grant the role access to the custom entity.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You manage Microsoft Office 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a company. Some Office 365 users do not have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license.
You need to ensure that all users can see tasks that are associated with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 opportunity record. What should you implement?
A. Microsoft OneNote integration
B. Microsoft OneDrive integration
C. Microsoft SharePoint integration
D. Microsoft Office 365 groups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
What is the total number of If-Else conditions that you can add to a business rule?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 15
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 tenant. You plan to implement Microsoft Office 365 Groups.
You to need to ensure that all Office 365 Group features are available.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure a Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox for each Microsoft Dynamics 365 user.
B. Enable the ISV Extensions security privilege.
C. Configure Yammer to work with Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Enable server-based Microsoft SharePoint in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
E. Configure the Microsoft SharePoint List component
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which component can you add to a solution?
A. Goals
B. Queues
C. Subjects
D. Processes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which form type is used by the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for tablets app?
A. Mobile
B. Main
C. Mobile – Express
D. Turbo
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which two chart types can you combine with another chart type? Each correct answer presents a complete
A. line
B. pie
C. column
D. funnel
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 24
You need to create a process that prompts users with questions and captures their answers. Which process type should you use?
A. business rule
B. dialog
C. custom action
D. background workflow
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
For which three scenarios can you enable duplicate detection? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. when Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook goes from offline to online
B. when a record is created or updated
C. during data import
D. when a record is deleted or deactivated
E. when Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook goes from online to offline
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 26
You create an asynchronous workflow that runs on demand. Which statement is true?
A. The workflow will run in the security context of the user who is designated in the Execute As setting.
B. The workflow will run in the security context of the system evaluating all conditions and taking all actions configured.
C. The workflow will run in the security context of the workflow owner.
D. The workflow will run in the security context of the user who triggered it.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which action can you perform by using a business rule?
A. Subtract $5.00 from a currency field.
B. Clear a two options field.
C. Concatenate two text fields.
D. Add six days to a date field.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
You are implementing a Lead to Quote business process. The process will update the Lead. Account Contact, and Quote entities. You need to create a business process flow (BPF) that spans the entities. MB2-716 dumps What should you do?
A. For each stage, specify the step.
B. Add a workflow.
C. Use a composition.
D. Add a stage and specify the properties for each entity.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which statement regarding ordering of items in the mobile navigation menu is
A. Menu item placement is governed by mobile offline settings.
B. Menu item placement is based on the site map.
C. Most recently used entities appear first.
D. Menu items are displayed in alphabetical order.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You create a workflow and set the scope to User (default). User A owns the workflow. User B is making bulk changes on records that will trigger the workflow.
Which records will this workflow affect?
A. records owned by users in the same business unit as User B
B. records owned by User A
C. records owned by User B
D. records owned by either User A or User B
Correct Answer: B

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CompTIA Linux+ LX0-102 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers Update (Q1-Q34)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following bash option will prevent an administrator from overwriting a file with a “>”?
A. set -o safe
B. set -o noglob
C. set -o noclobber
D. set -o append
E. set -o nooverwrite
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
All of the following are Mail Transport Agents EXCEPT:
A. exim
B. postfix
C. sendmail
D. qmail
E. mail
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
In the following command and its output, echo $$ 12942 which of the following is 12942?
A. The process ID of the echo command.
B. The process ID of the current shell.
C. The process ID of the last command executed.
D. The process ID of the last backgrounded command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands will print the exit value of the previous command to the screen in bash?
A. echo $?
B. echo $#
C. echo $exit
D. echo $status
E. echo $&}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements about crontab are true? (Select TWO).
A. Every user may have their owncrontab.
B. Changing a crontab requires a reload/restart of the cron daemon.
C. The cron daemon reloads crontab files automatically when necessary.
D. hourly is the same as “0 * * * *”.
E. A cron daemon must run for each existing crontab.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands is used to deactivate a network interface?
A. ifdown
B. ipdown
C. net
D. netdown
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
LX0-102 dumps Which of the following looks like a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain
B. localhost.localdomainlocalhost 127.0.0.1
C. localhostlocalhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomainlocalhost
E. localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1 localhost
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following lines would an administrator find in the file /etc/resolv.conf?
A. order hosts, bind
B. 192.168.168.4 dns-server
C. hosts: files, dns
D. domain mycompany.com
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following find commands will print out a list of suid root files in /usr?
A. find /usr -uid 0 -perm +4000
B. find -user root +mode +s /usr
C. find -type suid -username root -d /usr
D. find /usr -ls \*s\* -u root
E. find /usr -suid -perm +4000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the BEST way to list all defined shell variables?
A. env
B. set
C. env -a
D. echo $ENV
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
In the following command and its output, echo $$ 12942 which of the following is 12942?
A. The process ID of the echo command.
B. The process ID of the current shell.
C. The process ID of the last command executed.
D. The process ID of the last backgrounded command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
All of the following information is provided in any output from the netstat utility EXCEPT:
A. broadcast services
B. interface statistics
C. masquerading connections
D. network connections
E. routing tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
On a system using shadowed passwords, the correct permissions for /etc/passwd are ___ and the correct permissions for /etc/shadow are ___.
A. -rw-r—–, -r——–
B. -rw-r–r–, -r–r–r–
C. -rw-r–r–, -r——–
D. -rw-r–rw-, -r—–r–
E. -rw——-, -r——–
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following Class B IPv4 networks are reserved by IANA for private address assignment and private routing? (Select TWO).
A. 128.0.0.0
B. 169.16.0.0
C. 169.254.0.0
D. 172.16.0.0
E. 172.20.0.0
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 16
The correct crontab entry to execute the script chklog once per hour between 3 p.m. and 5 p.m. on Monday and Thursday each week is, which of the following?
A. 0 3, 4, 5 * * 2, 5 chklog
B. 0 3, 4, 5 * * 1, 4 chklog
C. 0 15, 16, 17 * * 1, 4 chklog
D. 0 15, 16, 17 1, 4 * * chklog
E. * 15, 16, 17 * * 1, 4 chklog
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is pool.ntp.org?
A. A deprecated feature for maintaining system time in the Linux kernel.
B. A website which provides binary and source packages for the OpenNTPD project.
C. A virtual cluster of various timeservers.
D. A community website used to discuss the localization of Linux.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following commands allows an administrator to make a shell variable visible to subshells?
A. export $VARIABLE
B. export VARIABLE
C. set $VARIABLE
D. set VARIABLE
E. env VARIABLE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The ________ command is used to add a group to the system. LX0-102 dumps (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /USR/SBIN/GROUPADD

Explanation:
/USR/SBIN/GROUPADD, GROUPADD

QUESTION 20
What word is missing from the following SQL statement? updatetablename ____ fieldname=’value’ where id=909;
Correct Answer: SET

QUESTION 21
What is the command to delete the default gateway from the system IP routing table? (Please specify the complete command with arguments, please no duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /SBIN/IPROUTEDEL0.0.0.0

Explanation:
/SBIN/IPROUTEDEL0.0.0.0, /SBIN/IPROUTEDELDEFAULT, /SBIN/ROUTEDEL0.0.0.0, /SBIN/ROUTEDELDEFAULT, IPROUTEDEL0.0.0.0,
IPROUTEDELDEFAULT, ROUTEDEL0.0.0.0, ROUTEDELDEFAULT

QUESTION 22
What word is missing from the following SQL statement? select count(*) _____ tablename;
Correct Answer: FROM

QUESTION 23
Which option, when passed to the gpg command, will enter an interactive menu enabling the user to perform key management related tasks? (Provide only one option).
Correct Answer: EDIT-KEY

QUESTION 24
To slave the NTP daemon to an external source, an administrator needs to modify the ______ variable in the /etc/ntp.conf file.
Correct Answer: SERVER

QUESTION 25
An administrator wants to temporarily prevent users from logging in. Please complete the following commanD. touch /etc/______
Correct Answer: NOLOGIN

QUESTION 26
An ISP has given an administrator an IP block for use. The block is 192.168.112.64/26. If the administrator uses the first usable IP for the router that is installed on the network, how many usable IPs are left? (Please enter the number and not a word)
Correct Answer: 61

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is NOT contained in the locale setting of the operating system?
A. Currency symbol
B. Language
C. Timezone
D. Thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which of the following commands will print the exit value of the previous command to the screen in bash?
A. echo $?
B. echo $#
C. echo $exit
D. echo $status
E. echo $&}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is NOT a Mail Transport Agent?
A. exim
B. postfix
C. sendmail
D. qmail
E. mail
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
A senior executive asked an administrator to change the default background of the executive’s machine, which uses XDM. Which of the following files would the administrator edit to achieve this? LX0-102 dumps
A. /etc/X11/xdm/Xsetup
B. /etc/X11/xdm.conf
C. /etc/X11/xdm/Defaults
D. /etc/X11/defaults.conf
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
A user was not given permission to use the CRON scheduling system. What file needs to be modified to provide that access? (Please specify the full path to the file).
Correct Answer: /ETC/CRON.ALLOW

QUESTION 32
An ISP has given an administrator an IP block for use. The block is 192.168.112.64/26. If the administrator uses the first usable IP for the router that is installed on the network, how many usable IPs are left? (Please enter the number and not a word)
Correct Answer: 61

QUESTION 33
An administrator is configuring a secured webserver, however connecting to https://127.0.0.1 is not working. The administrator runs netstat -ntl, which returns the following output: tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:80 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN What port should be listening before a successful connection is possible? (Provide only the numerical value of the port).
Correct Answer: 443

QUESTION 34
Which protocol uses two (2) TCP/IP ports one of them being port 20 for data transfer? (Please do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: FTP

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New Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)

QUESTION 11
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic? 300-135 dumps
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? (choose two)
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.
300-135 dumps
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the networkaddressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. Ipv4 OSPF Routing
D. Ipv4 EIGRP Routing.
E. Ipv4 Route Redistribution.
F. Ipv6 RIP Routing
G. Ipv6 OSPF Routing
H. Ipv4 and Ipv6 Interoperability
I. Ipv4 layer 3 security.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. 300-135 dumps After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 25
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks? (choose two)
A. Firefighting
B. Interrupt-driven
C. Policy-based
D. Structured
E. Foundational
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced
overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with
logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? 300-135 dumps (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 30
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

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200-105 dumps

The Best Cisco ICND2 200-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (11-30)

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
Convergence Cisco enhanced the original 802.1D specification with features such as Uplink Fast.

QUESTION 12
What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)
A. Disable Inverse ARP.
B. Create a full-mesh topology.
C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.
D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.
E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation/Reference:
IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing.

QUESTION 13
200-105 dumps
200-105 dumps
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the.

QUESTION 14
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation/Reference:
The areas can be any number from 0 to 4.2 billion and 1 to 65,535 for the Process ID. The process ID is the ID of the OSPF process to which the interface belongs. The process ID is local to the rout.

QUESTION 15
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? 200-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Correct Answer: BG

Explanation/Reference:
When reading (or being lectured about) all the glorious details of dynamic routing protocols, it\’s hard not to come away with the impression that dynamic routing is always better than static routing.

QUESTION 16
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation/Reference:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -andgt; A and E are correct.
The command andquot;show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about V.

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes a.

QUESTION 19
What are three benefits of GLBP? 200-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.
Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation/Reference:
Load Sharing You can configure GLBP in such a way that traffic from LAN clients can be shared by multiple routers.

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation/Reference:
The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing. Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don\’t need to specify which t.

QUESTION 21
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat

QUESTION 22
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF do

QUESTION 23
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
Introduction to EIGRP Reference:
Feasible Successors
A destination entry is moved from the topo

QUESTION 24
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Anoth

QUESTION 25
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
To assign a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) to a specified Frame Relay subinterface on t

QUESTION 26
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
Frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link 200-105 dumps

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Router edge-1 is unable to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency with router ISP-1. Which two configuration changes can you make on edge-1 to allow the two routers to establish adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. Set the subnet mask on edge-1 to 255 255.255.252.
B. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1514.
C. Set the OSPF cost on edge-1 to 1522.
D. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1500.
E. Configure the ip ospf mtu-ignore command on the edge-1 Gi0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A situation can occur where the interface MTU is at a high value, for example 9000, while the real value of the size of packets that can be forwarded over this interface is 1500.

QUESTION 28
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will include in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. However, OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routi

QUESTION 29
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
What Is Administrative Distance?
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to s

QUESTION 30
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? 200-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts totransparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
Correct Answer: CF

Explanation/Reference:
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
VTP Modes Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode. In any given V

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101 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is the advantage of specifying three load balancing methods when load balancingwithin pools?
A. Specifying three methods allows the GTM System to use all three methodssimultaneously.
B. Specifying three methods allows the GTM System to choose the optimal method for eachname resolution.
C. Specifying three methods allows the GTM System alternate methods if insufficient data isavailable for other methods.
D. Specifying three methods allows the GTM System to rotate between the three methods sothat no one method is used too often.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
An HTTP class is available ..
A. on any BIG-IP LTM system
B. only when ASM is licensed.
C. only when ASM or WA are licensed.
D. only when a specific license key is required.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
How is persistence configured?
A. Persistence is an option within each pool\’s definition.
B. Persistence is a profile type; an appropriate profile is created and associated with virtual server.
C. Persistence is a global setting; once enabled, load-balancing choices are superceded by the persistencemethod that is specified.
D. Persistence is an option for each pool member. When a pool is defined, each member\’s definition includesthe option for persistence.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the primary benefit of associating Servers with Data Centers?
A. The primary benefit is in assigning a single IP address to identify a Data Center.
B. The primary benefit is in combining probing metrics. Load balancing decisions can bemade more intelligently.
C. The primary benefit is administrative. It is easier to remember to add servers when theyare categorized by a physical location.
D. The primary benefit is in load balancing. Clients will not be directed to Data Centers thatare separated from them by great distances.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The Web Application Security Administrator user role can perform which of the followingfunctions? 101 dumps (Choose 2)
A. Modify HTTP class profiles.
B. Create new HTTP class profiles.
C. Create new Attack signature sets.
D. Assign HTTP class profiles to virtual servers.
E. Configure Advanced options within the BIG-IP ASM System.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
Which event is always triggered when the client sends data to a virtual server using TCP?
A. HTTP_DATA
B. CLIENT_DATA
C. HTTP_REQUEST
D. VS_CONNECTED
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following protocols can be protected by Protocol Security Manager? (Choose 3)
A. FTP
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D. SMTP
E. Telnet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three files/data items are included in a BIG-IP UCS backup file? (Choose three.)
A. The BIG-IP administrative addresses.
B. The BIG-IP license.
C. The BIG-IP log files.
D. The BIG-IP default traps.
E. The BIG-IP host name.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 9
A steaming profile will do which of the following?
A. Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string only is responses processed by avirtual server.
B. Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string only in request processed by avirtual server.
C. Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string in requests and responsesprocessed by a virtual server.
D. Search and replace the first occurrence of a specified of a specified string in either arequest or response processed by a virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true concerning SNATs using automap? 101 dumps
A. Only specified self-IP addresses are used as automap addresses.
B. SNATs using automap will translate all client addresses to an automap address.
C. A SNAT using automap will preferentially use a floating self-IP over a non-floating self- IP.
D. A SNAT using automap can be used to translate the source address of all outgoing traffic to the sameaddress regardless of which VLAN the traffic is sent through.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Monitors can be assigned to which three resources? (Choose three.)
A. Pools
B. Servers
C. Wide IPs
D. Data Centers
E. Pool Members
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12
What does the insert XForwarded option in an HTTP profile do?
A. A BIG-IP self-IP is inserted in the source address field on the server-side connection.
B. A BIG-IP self-IP is inserted in the source address field on the client-side connection.
C. The client IP addresses are inserted into messages sent to remote syslog servers.
D. The client IP addresses are inserted into HTTP header.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following methods are used by the BIG-IP ASM System to protect againstSQL injections?
A. HTTP RFC compliancy checks
B. Meta-character enforcement and attack signatures
C. HTTP RFC compliancy checks and length restrictions
D. Response scrubbing, HTTP RFC compliancy checks, and meta-character enforcement
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which are immediate results of entering the following command: b pool PoolA . { lb method predictive member10.10.1.1:80 member 10.10.1.2:80 }
A. Requests sent to this BIG-IP system with a destination port of 80 are load-balanced between the membersof PoolA.
B. No changes will take place since the command is missing the monitor component for PoolA.
C. The /config/bigip.cinf file is updated to include a definition for the pool named PoolA.
D. A new pool is available for association with any iRule or virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of the following methods of protection is not available within the Protocol SecurityManager for HTTP traffic?
A. Data guard
B. Attack signatures
C. Evasion techniques
D. File type enforcement
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: A user\’s Desktop OS machine with Personal vDisk (PvD) is unresponsive. The user needs to access applications installed on the PvD urgently, due to an important deadline.
How could a Citrix Administrator resolve this issue?
A. Use Citrix Director to reset the PvD
B. Use Citrix Studio to restore the user\’s initial settings.
C. Run the ctxpvd.exe command on the user\’s system.
D. Run a PowerShell cmdlet to restore the user\’s PvD to a new virtual machine.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Where in Citrix Director could a Citrix Administrator validate that Flash Redirection is enabled?
A. User Details
B. Activity Monitor
C. The Network tab
D. The Sessions tab
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Scenario: An application that renders locally and creates a large number of temporary files on the local drive is installed on the Desktop OS machines. A Citrix Administrator creates a vDisk in Private mode with this application installed. The administrator is in the process of updating a vDisk from Private mode to Standard mode and needs to determine the write cache type.
Which cache type would provide the best performance?
A. Cache on server
B. Cache on device hard drive
C. Cache on device hard drive encrypted
D. Cache in device RAM with overflow on hard disk
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to reduce power consumption during off-peak hours. With the current configuration, the Desktop OS machines will remain powered-on when users disconnect at the end of the workday. 1Y0-201 dumps How could the administrator reduce power consumption during off-peak hours?
A. Use the PowerShell cmdlet: Set-BrokerDesktopGroup.
B. Set the Reboot Schedule policy from within Citrix Studio.
C. Create a shutdown scheduled task on the Desktop OS machines.
D. Configure Power Management settings in an Active Directory Group Policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario: When remote users attempt to log on through NetScaler Gateway, they are presented with the following error message:
\’Cannot Complete your Request.\’
When the same users are in the office, they are able to log on successfully. What should a Citrix Administrator change to resolve this issue?
A. The Callback URL to match the external URL of the NetScaler Gateway.
B. The NetScaler Gateway Authentication method to \’Enable Pass-through\’.
C. The StoreFront URL to match the external URL of the NetScaler Gateway.
D. The External Beacon address to match the external URL of the NetScaler Gateway.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is informed of latency at a branch office. Users report they are experiencing slow mouse and keyboard responses, as well as slow screen refreshes, while working within their Desktop OS machines. Users at the branch office access their Desktop OS machines through the NetScaler Gateway. Which tool could the administrator use to monitor the user experience at the remote office?
A. Citrix Scout
B. Citrix Studio
C. Citrix Director
D. Citrix Command Center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator deployed a new session machine catalog using Machine Creation Services. During the deployment the administrator identified that a Desktop OS machine is unregistered but turned on. Which three logs could the administrator check to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose three.)
A. The Citrix Configuration log
B. The Virtual Delivery Agent logs
C. The logs on the hypervisor console
D. The Windows Event logs of the Delivery Controller
E. The Windows Event logs on the Desktop OS machine
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 8
Scenario: In a XenDesktop deployment, a Citrix Administrator must install an application that renders locally and creates a large number of temporary files on the local drive of Desktop OS machines. The administrator creates a vDisk in Private mode that contains the application. Now the administrator must change the vDisk mode from Private to Standard. The administrator must also determine the appropriate write cache type to configure. Which cache type will likely result in system failures with a blue screen of death?
A. Cache on server
B. Cache in device RAM
C. Cache on server persisted
D. Cache in device RAM with overflow on hard disk
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator at a medical facility needs to set up kiosks for non-corporate users to launch an application that utilizes internal authentication. 1Y0-201 dumps
The administrator needs to configure the site store.OrgA.com to allow this.
How should the administrator configure the store to accomplish this requirement?
A. Configure a new store as internal only with remote access.
B. Add a VPN in Remote Access for store.OrgA.com to allow access.
C. Configure the existing store as internal only with Remote Access set to None.
D. Create an anonymous store using the Delivery Controllers belonging to OrgA.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator discovers that there has been a security breach that requires all users to change their password. However, users are NOT able to change their password through StoreFront. What should the administrator do to allow for password changes?
A. Allow users to change passwords at any time.
B. Allow users to change expired passwords only.
C. Enable the password expired warning notification period.
D. Enable the password change feature on the NetScaler Gateway.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A user receives the following error when attempting to log in to a Desktop OS machine:
The desktop andquot;Finance1andquot; is temporarily unavailable due to planned maintenance. A Citrix Administrator verified that the Finance1 Delivery Group is NOT in maintenance mode, and no other users report virtual machine issues from the same Delivery Group.
How could the administrator resolve this issue?
A. Restart the Desktop OS machine.
B. Turnoff the maintenance mode on the specific Desktop OS machine.
C. Turn off maintenance mode on the XenServer hosting the user\’s Desktop OS machine.
D. Shutdown the user\’s Desktop OS machine and provision a new Desktop OS machine for the specific user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Scenario: Session Prelaunch is configured for all users in an environment. A new user complains about slow logon. A Citrix Administrator finds that Session Prelaunch is NOT working as expected for the new user and is working as expected for all other users.
What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. The user is NOT using the HTML5 Receiver.
B. The NetScaler Gateway plug-in is NOT installed.
C. The Citrix Receiver is installed without the /includeSSON switch.
D. The user certificate is NOT installed on the endpoint client device.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configures a profile management policy in Citrix Studio for the members of a particular organizational unit (OU). The administrator must verify that the filter is applied correctly to the newly created policy.
How could the administrator verify that the filter is correctly applied?
A. Using the Modeling Wizard
B. Using a Policy Template Comparison
C. Running rsop.msc on the Delivery Controller
D. Running gpresult /v from the command line
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator creates a new Desktop OS machine master image for the Marketing team. The administrator attempts to provision 25 Desktop OS machines using Machine Creation Services, but the process fails. 1Y0-201 dumps
Which component must the administrator install to resolve the desktop provisioning failure?
A. Citrix Scout
B. Hypervisor tools
C. Virtual Delivery Agent
D. End User Experience Monitor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has deployed 2000 Desktop OS machines in a call center environment. The call center is segmented into three shifts that span the full 24-hour day. The Desktop OS machines are deployed as non- persistent Desktop OS machines with Provisioning Services. The administrator needs to increase the RAM allocated to each Desktop OS machine by 1 GB.
What should the administrator do to add the memory to each Desktop OS machine in this environment?
A. Increase the memory of the Master Target Device inside the Provisioning Services Console.
B. Use PowerShell cmdlets on the Delivery Controller to set the Desktop OS machine settings for a specific Machine Catalog.
C. Update the template in the hosting infrastructure. In Citrix Studio, select the Machine Catalogs node, select the machine catalog in the results pane, and click Update Machine.
D. Create new virtual machines with the XenDeskop Setup Wizard using the updated hosting template. Once all Delivery Groups have been migrated to the new catalog, delete the existing Desktop OS machines.
Correct Answer: D

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause? 300-115 dumps
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to? 300-115 dumps
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.
A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface Description
D. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. 300-115 dumps
What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions.
What is the most likely cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Exam Code: 300-075
Total Questions: 383 Q&As
300-075 dump
QUESTION 1
If delegated credentials checking has been enabled and remote workers can register to the VCS Expressway, which statement is true?
A. H.323 message credential checks are delegated.
B. SIP registration proxy mode is set to On in the VCS Expressway.
C. A secure neighbor zone has been configured between the VCS Expressway and the VCS Control.
D. SIP registration proxy mode is set to Off in the VCS Expressway.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where do you configure the default bit rate for audio and video devices?
A. Enterprise Parameters
B. Region under Region Information
C. Cisco CallManager service under Service Parameter Configuration
D. Enterprise Phone Configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the host portion format in Cisco Unified Communications Manager URI dialing is false?
A. The host portion cannot start or end with a hyphen.
B. The host portion is not case sensitive.
C. The host portion accepts characters a-z, A-Z, 0-9, hyphens, and periods.
D. The host portion can have two periods in a row.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which statement about setting up FindMe in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server is true? 300-075 dump
A. Users are allowed to delete or change the address of their principal devices.
B. Endpoints should register with an alias that is the same as an existing FindMe ID.
C. If VCS is using Cisco TMS provisioning, users manage their FindMe accounts via VCS.
D. A VCS cluster name must be configured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An engineer is performing an international multisite deployment and wants to create an effective backup method to access TEHO destinations in case the call limit triggers. Which technology provides this ability?
A. AAR
B. CFUR
C. LRG
D. SRST
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which functionality does ILS use to link all hub clusters in an ILS network?
A. Fullmesh
B. Automesh
C. ILS updates
D. multicast
Correct Answer: B
300-075 dump
QUESTION 7
Which option indicates the best QoS parameters for interactive video?
A. 0% Max Loss, 100 ms One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning
B. 1% Max Loss, 160 ms One-way Latency, 60 ms Jitter, 10% Overprovisioning
C. 1% Max Loss, 150 ms One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning
D. 5% Max Loss, 5 s One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is working on a Cisco VCS Control routing configuration and wants users to be able to dial ccnpcollab and have calls routed to ccnpcollab@cisco.com. Which option achieves this aim?
A. search rules
B. transforms
C. access rules
D. call policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A presales engineer is working on a quote for a major customer and must evaluate how many Cisco VCS Expressway traversal call licenses for which to plan. Calls to and from which three routes must the engineer include in the tally? (Choose three.)
A. gateway
B. Cisco 9971 Endpoint
C. border controllers
D. gatekeeper
E. SIP trunk
F. VCS
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 10
You have deployed a Cisco 2821 ISR to perform as an SRST voice gateway at a remote site. During a network failure between the remote site and the central office, some of the phones located at the remote site are unable to make phone calls. Which two options are potential causes of the problem? 300-075 dump (Choose two.)
A. The site has exceeded the number of SRST endpoints supported by the voice gateway.
B. The ccm-manager fallback command is configured incorrectly on the voice gateway.
C. Phones at the remote site are assigned to the incorrect device pool.
D. The ccm-manager fallback-mgcp command is configured incorrectly on the voice gateway.
E. The site has exceeded the number of simultaneous calls allowed in SRST mode.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which two options are functionalities of subzones in a Cisco VCS deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Resolve names outside of the direct control of the Cisco VCS that exist on the public Internet.
B. Connect to another Cisco VCS on the same side of the firewall to extend dialing capabilities.
C. Traverse a firewall from a protected network to a public or DMZ network.
D. Apply registration, authentication, and media encryption policies.
E. Manage bandwidth to restrict standard definition endpoints from using more than 2 Mb of bandwidth.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list
Correct Answer: AC

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Exam Code: 200-355
Total Questions: 421 Q&As
200-355 dumps
QUESTION 1
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which architecture is used to divide the roles between the access point and the WLC when deploying a centralized wireless solution?
A. Split MAC
B. CAPWAP
C. LWAPP
D. Local MAC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
During the deployment of a wireless network for data and location services, 200-355 dumps an engineer is to fine-tune the location services. What is this type of survey called?
A. passive fingerprinting
B. passive calibrating
C. active fingerprinting
D. active calibrating
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three items do you need to establish a wireless connection to an enterprise wireless network? (Choose three.)
A. SSID name
B. RF channel
C. RF signal
D. 802.1X/EAP credentials
E. pre-shared key
F. web page
G. WPA/WPA2 settings
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
200-355
Refer to the exhibit. The wireless engineer has deployed the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller. The controller is responding on the service port; however, it will not respond on the management interface.
Which configuration revision will fix the management interface?
A. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10.
B. On the WLC management interface, disable LAG on the management network.
C. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10.
D. On the WLC management interface, change the VLAN ID to 20.
E. On the switch interface, configure no spanning-tree portfast trunk.
F. On WLC Controller > General, disable LAG and reboot.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core Cisco AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Which two Cisco WLC management-access methods are available as the default setting? (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
A customer is reviewing Cisco Prime Infrastructure to identify malicious rogue access points that are operating within the customer environment. 200-355 dumps Which dashboard in Cisco Prime Infrastructure displays this information by default?
A. Context Aware
B. CleanAir
C. Security
D. General
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A customer has ordered a Cisco 5760 Wireless Controller. What speed and quantity of ports are needed for full-speed operation?
A. 6 x 1 Gb
B. 6 x 10 Gb
C. 2 x 10 Gb
D. 2 x 1 Gb
E. 8 x 1 Gb
F. 8 x 10 Gb
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When an AP, in its default configuration mode, connects to a Cisco WLC, which methods are available forremote management access to an AP?
A. SSL and SSH are available only after configuration by a Cisco WLC version 7.0.
B. SSH only
C. HTTPS, and SSH
D. SSH and Telnet
E. SSH and Telnet are available only after configuration by a Cisco WLC version 7.0.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
Correct Answer: BE

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